NTSE Sample Questions 2016-17 : Odisha SAT (Stage-1)
1. Rise in Green Net National Income implies higher sustainable development in an economy. Green Net National Income is the difference between
(A) Difference between Net National Income and gross savings
(B) Difference between Net National Income and depreciation of natural capital
(C) Difference between Net National Income and depreciation of man-made capital
(D) Both (B) and (C)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select answer using the appropriate code from among the following alternatives.
(A) A – II, B – III, C – I, D – IV (B) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV
(C) A – III, B – I, C – II, D – IV (D) A – IV, B – II, C – I, D – III
3. If Life Expectancy Index for a country is 0.53, Educational Attainment Index is 0.67 and Per Capita Real GDP Index is 0.42, then HDI for the country will be
(A) 0.93 (B) 0.70 (C) 0.54 (D) 0.68
4. If cash reserve ratio of banks is 20% and currency reserves in the banking system amount to 50 million rupees, the maximum amount of demand deposits which can be created by the banks is
(A) 200 million rupees (B) 250 million rupees (C) 500 million rupees (D) 1000 million rupees
5. The Government of India supplies food grains and other essential commodities to BPL households through fair price shops. Name of the programme is
(A) ICDS (B) MDM (C) PDS (D) Antodaya
6. Free trade in goods among nations is called
(A) Privatisation (B) Liberalisation (C) Globalisation (D) Exclusion
7. NITI Ayog prepares
(A) Five year plans for the country (B) Five year plans for the states
(C) Annual plans for the country as well as states (D) None of the above
8. Indira Awas Yojana houses are given to the
(A) STs only (B) SCs only (C) BPL households (D) Both (A) and (B)
9. In which of the following countries the Baluchistan Plateu is located?
(A) Afghanistan (B) Pakistan (C) China (D) India
10. What is the percentage of surface covered by India?
(A) 2.4 (B) 3.4 (C) 4.4 (D) 5.4
11. Which of the following places is known as the “Island of Pearls”?
(A) Australia (B) Madagascar (C) Baharin (D) Srilanka
12. Durand Line is the boundary between:
(A) India and Pakistan (B) India and China
(C) Pakistan and Afghanistan (D) India and Afghanistan
13. In which of the following countries world’s largest reserves of uranium is located?
(A) Australia (B) Canada (C) China (D) Brazil
14. Select the odd one from the following:
(A) Chilika (B) Pulicat (C) Vembanad (D) Kolleru
15. What is Karewa?
(A) A type of soil (B) A type of plant (C) A type of animal (D) A type of tribe
16. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(A) Berlin – Rhine (B) London – Thames (C) New York – Hudson (D) Viena – Danube
17. Which of the following groups accounts for over 90% of India’s annual coal production?
(A) Bihar, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh (B) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(C) West Bengal, Odisha, Madhya Pradesh (D) Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal
18. Which National Highway connects Amritsar with Kolkata via Delhi?
(A) N.H. 1 (B) N.H. 2 (C) N.H. 4 (D) N.H. 8
19. In which state is the Guru Sikhar Peak Located?
(A) Gujarat (B) Rajasthan (C) Maharashtra (D) Madhya Pradesh
20. Tehri Hydropower Project is located on:
(A) Alakananda River (B) Bhagirathi River (C) Mandakini River (D) Dhauliganga River
21. In the context of which event we read about the activities of Mensheviks and Bolshevicks?
(A) French Revolution (B) World war I (C) Russian Revolution (D) Indian Nationalist movement
22. Who was the Czar of Russia in 1917?
(A) Alexander I (B) Alexander II (C) Nicholas I (D) Nicholas II
23. In which country was the Weimar Republic formed after the World War I?
(A) Germany (B) Italy (C) France (D) England
24. Find out which statement mentioned below is true
(A) Hitler came to power in Italy
(B) Hitler deliberately violated the terms of the Treaty of Versailles
(C) Hitler was a poor orator
(D) Hitler encouraged the Jews
25. Who has written the Odia novel Chhamana Athaguntha?
(A) Rama Shankar Ray (B) Nandakishore Bal
(C) Fakir Mohan Senapati (D) Surendra Mohanty
26. Where did Mahatma Gandhi start his first Satyagraha movement?
(A) South Africa (B) Kheda (C) Champaran (D) Nagpur
27. Whose cause did Mahatma Gandhi champion in organizing a satyagraha movement in Ahemadabad in 1918?
(A) Peasants (B) Agricultural Labours (C) Zamindars (D) Cotton mill workers
28. What was the date fixed for observing a countrywide hartalin protest against the Rawlatt Act?
(A) 18 March 1919 (B) 19 March 1919 (C) 6 April 1919 (D) 9 April 1919
29. Who presided over the Lahore session of the Indian National Congress in December 1929?
(A) Motilal Nehru (B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose (D) Mahatma Gandhi
30. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Salt Satyagraha began in 1930?
(A) Lord Irwin (B) Lord Willingdon (C) Lord Linlithgow (D) Lord Wavell
31. How was response of the Indian women towards the Salt Satyagraha?
(A) They were against the movement (B) They remained indifferent
(C) They participated in large number (D) They were not allowed to participate
32. Which one of the following is written in correct chronological order of the given events?
(A) Chaurichaura Incident, Gandhi – Irwin Pact, Second Round Table conference, Dandi March
(B) Dandi March, Chaurichaura incident, Second Round Table Conference, Gandhi – Irwin Pact
(C) Second Round Table Conference, Dandi March, Gandhi – Irwin Pact, Chaurichaura Incident
(D) Chaurichaura Incident, Dandi March, Gandhi – Irwin Pact, Second Round Table Conference
33. Which part of the Indian Constitution mentions that the State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security?
(A) Part I (B) Part II (C) Part III (D) Part IV
34. How many members from the Anglo-Indian Community be nominated to the State Legislative Assembly by the Governor?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
35. What happens if there is a disagreement between the two Houses of the Parliament regarding a Constitution Amendment Bill?
(A) Joint sitting of both the House is convened. (B) The bill is sent to the State Legislative
(C) There is an end to the Bill (D) Advice of the Supreme Court is solicited
36. What can be the maximum number of elected members of a State Legislative Assembly?
(A) 500 (B) 507 (C) 509 (D) 510