Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Elementary Structural Mechanics

Subject : Elementary Structural Mechanics

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (NCC)

Max marks : 49 marks Common Syllabus

                       +

21 marks Special Subject

Duration: 3 hours

COMMON SYLLABUS

1. What is ‘Sajna’(dressing)in drill with arms? 2 1

2. What is radio-active waste? 9 1

3. What is the ill-effect of high sulphur di oxide content in air on our health?

4. Write any 2 Directive Principles of State Policy 1 2

5. What is the need of etiquettes in a society? (Any 2) 4 2

6. After a series of events, including the Jallianwala Bagh, it was realized that there was no prospect of getting fair treatment at the hands of British , so it was planned to withdraw the nation’s cooperation from the British government .
a) Identify the movement.
b) Under whose leadership this movement was started?
c) What was the outcome of this movement?
7. What are the 3 fundamentals of side pace? 2 3
8. Weapon training is a very important component of NCC program.

Explain giving 3 relevant points.

9. Explain the role of NCC carcass disposal groups at the time of any natural or manmade calamity.

10. State the laws of aiming. 3 4

11. Apart from boiling & filtration explain any 4 ways of water purification. 7 4

12. From 962 for every 1000 boys in the year 1981 , the sex ratio has decreased to an all time low of only 914 girls for 1000 boys in 2011.
a) Identify & explain the cause of dropping sex- ratio in the given period.
b) Explain any three effects of the given situation

13. What is self- awareness ? Explain any 5 dimensions of self- awareness. 2 6

14. What procedure is followed by the Guard Mounting NCO with regard to the inspection of the Guard?

15. State the objective of ‘obstacle training’ for an NCC Cadet. Enlist the safety measures to be followed during this course. What are the benefits of obstacle training course for a cadet?

Special Subjects

A. Army

1. What is a contour? 2 1

2. What is a modem? 6 1

3. Write about any two methods used in finding north? 2 2

4. Write about any two uses of service protector? 2 2

5. Mention about any four facilities that videophone provide? 6 2

6. Write about any three characteristics of Infantry. 1 3

7. With regard to 5.56MM INSAS rifle provide the following information:
(i) Length of rifle with bayonet.
(ii) Effective range
(iii) Muzzle velocity
(iv) Principal of operation
(v) Mode of fire
(vi) Normal rate of fire

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper (Mathematics) 2014-2015

 
Fig.1

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices

Subject : Peration And Maintenance of Communication Devices

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Traditional Indian Textile

Subject : Traditional Indian Textile

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper (English Language & Literature) 2014-2015

Section A
Reading - 20 Marks

Time: 3hrs.

M.M.70

VSAQ - 1 MARK

Q.1. Read the passage given below:

 8 Marks

Big, bold and beautiful, the Rafflesia arnoldii boasts the title of the largest flower in the world and can grow to massive proportions, with a flower diameter of up to one meter (three feet) and a hefty weight of up to 11 kilograms (24 lbs). It might seem like a great gift for that special someone except that it's nicknamed the corpse flower and smells like rotting meat, so may not be quite as endearing as expected.

Resembling the coiled tentacles of an octopus up close, the stinky flower leaves such a lasting impression that it was once described by Swedish zoologist Eric Mjöberg in 1928 as having “a penetrating smell more repulsive than any buffalo carcass in an advanced stage of decomposition.” Nice. Technically a plant, although it has no leaves, stems or roots that the eye can see, the corpse flower relies on its strong perfume to attract insects that help with pollination. The other not so pleasant qualities of the flower are its parasitic tendencies; by living off the water and nutrients from the hapless Tetrastigma vine, the corpse flower is able to grow as large as it does. And whether it's considered a beauty, beast, or both, the lure of this bewitching flower is hard to resist. However, to be successful in a quest to find it, a few stars need to align. Found only in the dwindling rainforests of Sumatra and Borneo, pollination is rare and the bud death rate is high at 80-90%. The few buds that actually bloom take many months to do so, and when they do they last no more than a few days before dying. The good news is that there are great conservation efforts in place to protect the habitat of the Rafflesia species so future generations can experience the sight and smell of the largest flower on Earth. (314 words)

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Basic Pattern Devolopment

Subject : Basic Pattern Devolopment

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

CBSE Class-10 Exam 2018 : All India Scheme
Question Paper-Dynamic of Retailing

Subject : Dynamic of Retailing

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 80

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Political Science)

TIME-3HRS

MM-100

General Instructions:-

a) All questions are compulsory.
b) Question nos. 1 to 5 carry 1 mark each. Answer should not exceed 20 words each.
c) Question nos. 6 to 10 carry 2 marks each. Answer should not exceed 40 words each.
d) Question nos. 11 to 16 carry 4 marks each. Answer should not exceed 100 words each.
e) Question nos. 17 to 21 carry 5 marks each. Answer should not exceed 150 words each.
f) Question no 21 is a map –based question. Write its answer in your answer book
g) Question nos. 22 to 27 carry 6 marks each. Answer should not exceed 150 words each.

1. Name the paramilitary force of Hyderabad Nizam to counter communist forces during 1947.

2. Which one of the following statements about the Bandwagon Strategy is false?

A. advisable to extract benefits by operating within the hegemonic system
B. to take advantage of the opportunities that hegemony creates
C. staying as far removed from the dominant power as possible
D. for raising economic power work with hegemony

3. Why was BAMCEF established?

4. How did the Anti Arrack Movement lead to 73rd and 74th amendment of the Indian constitution?

5. Mention any two reforms initiated by Mikhail Gorbachev in the Soviet Union

6. Match the following Secretary Generals of UNO with their respective countries:

A. Trygve Lie                                 i. Egypt
B. Boutros-Boutros Ghali             ii. Ghana
C. Kofi Annan                               iii. Burma (Myanmar
D. U Thant                                    iv. Norway

7. How is oil continued to be the most important resource in the global strategy? Explain with an example.

8. Why was Shah Commission appointed? Mention any one of its finding

9. State the outcomes of Punjab Accord.

10. How did the opposition parties of 1950s play a crucial role in making the democratic character of the system? Explain

11. How can peace and cooperation be enhanced in the SAARC region? Give any four reforms.

12. Mention the role of E V Ramaswamy Naicker in the Dravidian Movement

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2015-16 : Science

Sample Question Paper 2016

Science

Class – X (SA – II)

Time allowed: 03 Hours

Maximum Marks: 90

General Instructions:
(i) The question paper comprises two sections, A and B. You are to attempt both the sections.
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) There is no choice in any of the question.
(iv) All questions of Section-A and B are to be attempted separately.
(v) Question numbers 1 to 3 in Section - A are one mark question. They are to be answered in one word or in one sentence.
(vi) Question numbers 4 to 6 in Section - A are two marks questions. These are to be answered in 30 words each.
(vii) Question numbers 7 to 18 in Section - A are three marks questions. These are to be answered in about 50 words each.
(viii) Question numbers 19 to 24 in Section-A are 5 marks questions. These are to be answered in 70 words each.
(ix) Question numbers 25 to 33 in Section- B are multiple choice questions based on practical skills. Each question is a one mark question. You are to select one most appropriate response out of the four provided to you.
(x) Question numbers 34 to 36 in Section B are two marks questions based on practical skills. These are to be answered in brief.

SECTION – A

1 Name the process of converting vegetable oil to vegetable ghee. 1

2 Give reason for the statement- Since the ovary releases one egg every month, the uterus also prepares itself every month by making its lining thick and spongy.1

3 Name the component of white light that has the greatest wavelength.1

4 Which natural resource are the „biodiversity hot spots‟? Suggest what happens when there is a loss of biodiversity? 2

5 Write the name and molecular formula of an organic compound having its name suffixed with „–ol‟ and having two carbon atoms in the molecule. With the help of a balanced equation indicate what happens when its heated with excess of conc. H₂SO₄. ½ + ½ +1

6 A cube of edge 6 cm is placed over a printed page. At what distance from the top surface of cube will the letters appear when seen from above? Refractive index of glass is 1.5 2

7What is meant by isomers? “We can not have isomers of the first three members of alkane series” give reason to justify this statement. Draw the structures of two isomers of pentane, C₅H₁₂ 1+1+1

8 i) Name the following:

a) Third member of aldehyde series
b) Second member of carboxylic series
ii) Write the IUPAC name of the following:

9 Four elements A, B, C and D have atomic numbers 12, 13, 14 and 15 respectively.
Answer the following questions giving reasons -
i) What is the number of valence electrons and valency of D?
ii) Which of them will have largest atomic radii?
iii) Which of these elements will form the most basic oxide? 1+1+1

10 Differentiate between combustion and oxidation reactions of ethanol. 3

11 In a germinating seed, which parts are known as future shoot and future root? Mention the function of cotyledon. 3

12 What is placenta? Write any two major functions of placenta. 3

13 „Different species use different strategies to determine sex of a newborn individual. It can be environmental cues or genetically determined‟. Explain the statement by giving example for each strategy. 3

14 A 2 cm high object is placed at a distance of 32 cm from a concave mirror. The image is real, inverted and 3 cm in size. Find the focal length of the mirror and the position where the image is formed? 3

15 A child while playing with his father‟s spectacles burnt a hole in a piece of paper by focusing a small image of the sun on it.
(i) What defect of vision his father is suffering from?
(ii) Write two causes for this defect?
(iii) Draw a ray diagram to show image formation by the defective eye?
(iv) Draw a ray diagram showing corrected eye using proper lens. 3

16 Explain the formation of rainbow in the sky with the help of a diagram. List the three phenomena involved in proper sequence. 3

17 Which types of people are benefited from the development of different resources? Why do we need to use the resources carefully? 3

18 Write any three characteristics of a food chain. Dharmesh always treated the chemical effluent before disposing it in the water body. Mention any three moral values possessed by Dharmesh. 3

19 In the following table. Six elements A, B, C, D, E and F of the modern periodic table with atomic numbers 3 to 18 are given:

Click Here To Download Full Sample Paper Science

Click Here To Download Full Marking Scheme Science

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme (Psychology)

Time – 3 Hours

Max Marks – 70

General instructions

• All questions are compulsory and answers should be brief and to the point.

• Marks for each question are indicated against it.

• Question No 1- 10 in part A are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each. You are expected to answer them as directed.

• Question No 11-16 in Part B are very short answer questions carriying2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 30 words.

• Question No. 17-20 in Part C are short answer type-I questions carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.

• Question No. 21-26 in Part D are short answer type-II questions carrying 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 100 words.

• Question No. 27 and 28 in Part E are long answer type questions carrying 6 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 200 words.

Part – A

Q 1. Dipa Karmakar is the first Indian gymnast to qualify for the Rio Olympics 2016. According to psychologists, Dipa would be high on _________intelligence.

a) Spatial
c) Interpersonal
b) Naturalistic
d) Bodily – kinesthetic

Q 2. Mamta is suffering from a rare disease but her mother is refusing to accept the reality. She insists on taking Mamta from one doctor to another hoping to hear that nothing is wrong with her daughter. This is an example of:

a) Projection
c) Denial
b) Reaction Formation
d) Rationalisation

Q 3. Aisha is in the final year of schooling and is highly motivated to excel in the competitive examinations. However she feels she is short of time and always burdened with work. She finds it difficult to slow down and relax. Identify her personality type.

a) Type A
c) Type B
b) Type C
d) Type D

Q 4. George’s sympathetic nervous system is engaged in the flight or fight syndrome due to a major stressor in his life. Which stage of general adaptation syndrome is he experiencing?

Q 5. Rahul keeps organizing his room the whole day. This keeps him anxious and distracted in class. Such symptoms are typical of which disorder?

a) Agoraphobia
c) Obsessive behaviour
b) Obsessive compulsive disorder
d) Generalised Anxiety Disorder

Q 6. During the course of treatment in psychodynamic therapy, the client has resentment, hostility and anger towards the therapist. This is called __________.

Q7. Even though Ajay’s father has recently bought him a pair of trousers, Ajay is insisting on buying a new pair of a particular brand of jeans that all his classmates are wearing. Ajay’s behavior illustrates______________

a) Conformity
b) Competition
c) Obedience
d) Compliance

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper And Marking Scheme 2015-16 : Painting

PAINTING
Sample Question Paper 2016
Class – X

Time allowed: 03 hours

Maximum Marks: 60

Make a painting composition on any of the following subjects in any medium (water/tempera/pastel colours) of your choice, on a drawing paper about 39cm x 28cm in size, either horizontally or vertically. Weightage will be given to a well composed drawing, effective use of media, proper emphasis on the subject-matter and utilization of full space. Include only those forms and emphasize accordingly, which are relevant to the subject chosen. For the purpose, recall some of the shapes from life and nature, which you have observed or studied through sketches.

Subjects:

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper - Music Hindustani (Percussion)

Time allowed: 03 hours

Maximum Marks: 30

Instructions:

• Attempt any five questions.
• All questions carry equal marks.

1. Give the musical contribution of Pt. Gyan Prakash Ghosh or Guru Purushotam Das.

2. Define any three of the following:
a. Fard
b. Baant
c. Peshkar
d. Uthan

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper 2015-16 : Information And Communication Technology

Information And Communication Technology (ICT) (Code No. 166)
Sample Paper SET II
Class – X (2015-16)

TIME: - 3 HRS.

M M: - 70

Q 1. What do you understand by a FORM? 1
Q 2. Name any two the attributes of FORM Tag. 1
Q 3. Which attribute is needed to tell the form where its contents will be sent to? 1
Q 4. Name one scripting language that is used as part of DHTML. 1
Q 5. Write the full form of CS 1
Q 6. What is an internal style sheet 1
Q 7. Which property in CSS describes how bold or “heavy” a font should be presented? 1
Q 8. Which property makes it is possible to add different “decorations” or “effects” to text. 1
Q 9. Which property of CSS repeats the image both horizontally and vertically to cover the entire Screen. 1
Q 10. Which property describes the foreground color of a text to be displayed in browser? 1
Q 11. Which property is used to apply prioritized list of fonts in a web page. 1
Q 12. Which property is used to select normal or small-caps variants of a font? 1
Q 13. Which property controls the capitalization of a text? 1
Q 14. Which property allows you to add effects to text paragraphs by applying an indent to the first line of the paragraph? 1
Q 15. What is firewall 1
Q 16. State the purpose of get and post method 2

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Capital Market Operations

Subject : Capital Market Operations

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

CBSE Class-10 Exam 2018 : All India Scheme
Question Paper-Basic Agriculture

Subject : Basic Agriculture

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 80

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Database Management Application

Subject : Database Management Application

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :

(Download) CBSE Class-12 2016-17 Sample Paper - Music Hindustani (Vocal)

Time allowed: 03 hours

Maximum Marks: 30

Instructions:

• Attempt any five questions.

• All questions carry equal marks.

1. Define any form of the following -

Murchhana, Alankar, Gram, Varna, Gamak, Tana

2. Give the detailed description of any two of the following Ragas -

(i) Bhairav
(ii) Bageshri
(iii) Bhimpalasi

3. Write the notation of a Vilambit Khayal in one of the prescribed Raga

OR

Write the notation of a Drut Khayal in any Night Raga of your syllabus.

4. Give a detailed description of ‘Sangeet Ratnakar’.

OR

Describe the contribution of Pt. Ahobal to Indian Music with reference to ‘Sangeet Parijat’.

5. Discuss the development of ‘classification of Ragas’ in Indian Music.

(Download) CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper 2015-16 : Elements of Book Keeping And Accountancy

CBSE Class-10 Sample Paper 2015-16 : Elements of Book Keeping And Accountancy

SAMPLE PAPER – 1
ELEMENTS OF BOOK KEEPING AND ACCOUNTANCY
CLASS – X (2015-16)
SA-II (TERM –II)

Q1. The purpose of preparing final accounts is to ascertain:
a) Profit or loss
b) Capital
c) The value of assets
d) Profit or loss and financial position

Q2. The profit and loss account shows:
a) Financial position of the concern
b) Gross profit
c) Net profit
d) Net profit and financial position

Q3. Balance sheet shows:
a) Profit or loss
b) Financial position
c) Errors of accounts
d) Total debtors

Q4. Final Accounts are prepared:
a) At the end of calender year
b) At the beginning of the accounting year
c) On every Diwali
d) At the end of accounting year

Q5. Trading and Profit and Loss Account is prepared:
a) For a particular period
b) On a particular date
c) For the whole year
d) For a decade

Q6.Balance sheet is prepared:
a) For a particular period
b) On a particular date
c) For the whole year
d) For a month

Q7. Excess of credit in Profit and Loss account is called:
a) Net profit
b) Net loss
c) Gross profit
d) Gross loss

Q8. Wages and Salaries appearing in Trial Balance is shown:
a) On the debit side of trading A/c
b) On the debit side of Profit and Loss Account
c) On the Asset Side of the Balance Sheet
d) On the liabilities side of Balance Sheet

Q9. Land is :
a) Current Asset
b) Fixed asset
c) A liability
d) Capital

Q10. Choose the current assets from the following:
a) Plant
b) Inventories
c) Creditors
d) Capital

Q11. Generally accounts under single entry system are maintained by:
a) Sole Trader
b) Company
c) Society
d) Government

Q12. Single entry system of book keeping is:
a) accurate
b) systematic
c) Unscientific
d) Rationale

Q13. When closing capital is more than the opening capital, it denotes:
a) Profit
b) Loss
c) No profit no loss
d) Profit, if there is no introduction of fresh capital

Q14.When closing capital is less than the opening capital, it denotes:
a) Profit
b) Loss
c) Loss, if there is drawing
d) Expenses

Q15.If the due date of a bill falls on a public holiday then the bill is due on :
a) One day after the due date
b) Public holiday
c) One day before the due date
d) One month after due date

Q16.Bill of Exchange is also:
a) Order
b) Request
c) Promise
d) Invoice

Q17.Drawer in bill of exchange is a person:
a) Who draws a bill
b) Who accepts the bill
c) Who makes the payment
d) Intelligent person/ none of the above

Q18.Endorsing the bill means:
a) Giving the bill on charity
b) Deposting the bill for the government treasury
c) Transferring the bill to another person by the holder
d) Receiving the bill from creditors

Q19.Give three differences between Trading Account and Profit and Loss Account.

Q20.Calculate Closing Capital:
Opening capital Rs. 1,70,000: Profit for the year Rs.1,20,000: Drawings Rs. 70,000. During the year proprietor sold ornaments of his wife For Rs.20,000 and invested the same in business.

Q21. What is meant by “Accounting from Incomplete Records”? Mention any two characteristics of it.

Q22. Give three differences between Balance Sheet and Statements of Affairs.

Click Here To Download Full Sample Paper

Question Papers For Board Examinations 2018

Class – XII

Subject – Printed Textile

Subject : Printed Textile

Class : XII

Year : 2018

General Instructions :