CDS Exam (II) 2010

The UPSC has announced the results of the written part of the Combined Defence Services Examination (II)-2010 held in September 2010. Total 9411 candidates have qualified for being interviewed by the Service Selection Board of the Ministry of Defence, for admission to (i) Indian Militry Academy, Dehradun 131st Course commencing in July 2011 Iii) Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala Course commencing in July 2011 (iii) Air Force Academy, Hyderabad (Pre-Flying) Training Course for 190th F(P) Course commencing in July, 2011 (iv) Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai 94th SSC Course (for Men) commencing in October 2011 and (v) Officers’ Training Academy, 8th SSC (Women Non-Technical) Course commencing in October 2011. The ratio of candidates short listed for the examination per vacancy is 1:18:10.

CBSE Proficiency Test in Science - 2011

(SAMPLE PAPER)

General Instructions: (All questions are compulsory.)

The questions are divided into three sections:

1. Section I: Questions 1 to 9 are Multiple Choice Questions. Each multiple choice question has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. Each correct answer earns a credit of 2 marks. A wrong answer carries a penalty of -2/3 mark.
2. Section II: Questions 10 to 12 are Numerical Questions. Each correct answer earns a credit of 4 marks. There is no negative marking for these questions.
3. Section III: Questions 13 to 15 are Column-matching Questions. In these questions, there are 3 items in the left column (Column I) and 6 options in the right column (Column II). You have to match each item in Column I with ALL the correct options in Column II. For each item in Column I, you earn 2 marks if all correct matches in Column II are indicated, and no incorrect matches are indicated. There is no negative marking for these questions.

• For all types, an unanswered question earns no mark.

1. There are several microorganisms like amoebae and bacteria that live in water and use oxygen. Choose the option that describes the process by which oxygen enters the cell through the plasma membrane.
(A) The plasma membrane selectively takes in oxygen into the cell. This process needs energy.
(B) The plasma membrane selectively takes in oxygen into the cell. This process does not need energy.
(C) Oxygen enters into the cell from the surrounding water by diffusion. This process does not need any energy.
(D) Oxygen enters into the cell from the surrounding water by diffusion. This process needs energy.

2. Select the option that gives the size of the components in a cell in an increasing order.
(A) ribosome, mitochondria, nucleus, ATP
(B) ATP, ribosome, mitochondria, nucleus
(C) mitochondria, ribosome, ATP, nucleus
(D) ATP, mitochondria, ribosome, nucleus

3. Select the correct statement about viruses.
(A) Viruses consume host cells by ingestion.
(B) Viruses depend on the host cells for respiration.
(C) Viruses reproduce outside the host cells and spread infection to other host cells.
(D) Viruses do not have any metabolic process occurring within themselves.

4. There are two samples of 2 g each of hydrogen and helium gases. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Number of moles of hydrogen is the same as that of helium.
(B) Number of moles of hydrogen is double that of helium.
(C) Number of moles of hydrogen is half that of helium.
(D) Number of moles of hydrogen is four times that of helium.

5. A student needed to find out the polarity (+ or 􀀀) of the two terminals of a battery coming out of a device. She made a setup by placing the two wires inside water (with little lemon added) in a glass and checked if gases were bubbling out from the wire ends. Which of the following is correct?
(A) The wire end with higher quantity of gas bubbles is the negative terminal.
(B) The wire end with higher quantity of gas bubbles is the positive terminal.
(C) The wire end with no gas coming out is the negative terminal.
(D) The wire end with no gas coming out is the positive terminal.

CBSE Proficiency Test in Mathematics - 2011

(SAMPLE PAPER)

General Instructions: (All questions are compulsory.)

The questions are divided into three sections:
1. Section I: Questions 1 to 11 are Multiple Choice Questions. Each multiple choice question has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. Each correct answer earns a credit of 3 marks.
A wrong answer carries a penalty of -1 mark.
2. Section II: Questions 12 to 15 are Numerical Questions. Each correct answer earns a credit of 5 marks. There is no negative marking for these questions.
3. Section III: Questions 16 to 17 are Column-matching Questions. In these questions, there are 3 items in the left column (Column I) and 5 options in the right column (Column II). You have to match each item in Column I with ALL the correct options in Column II. For each item in Column I, you earn 2 marks if all correct matches in Column II are indicated, and no incorrect matches are indicated. There is no negative marking for these questions.

• For all types, an unanswered question earns no mark.

1. The sum of all the numbers between 1 and 1000, which are divisible by 5 but not by 2 is:
(A) 101100
(B) 50000
(C) 50050
(D) 10100

2. The annual salary of Mr. Nair for the year 2010 is Rs. 40,000. Every year his salary increases by Rs. 4,000. At the beginning of the year 2010 he had borrowed a sum of Rs. 44,000 from a bank. Given the following information determine the number of years he will take to repay the principal and the interest to the bank.

(a) The interest due for payment is Rs. 3,600 at the end of the year 2010 and increases by Rs. 800 every year thereafter and (b) each year he is going to pay the bank 20% of his annual income towards loan repayment.

3. From a point A on a straight road the angle of elevation of the top of a vertical tower situated on the roof of a vertical building on the same road is q. The angle of elevation of the bottom of the tower from a point B on the road is again q. The height of the building is 50 metres. If AB : BY is 2 : 5, where Y is the base of the building, what is the height of the tower?

4. In a game, a number is chosen at random from the set f1;2;3; : : : ;28;29;30g. What is the probability that the number chosen is a product of exactly two different prime numbers?

(A) 7/30
(B) 1/6
(C) 4/15
(D) 1/5

5. Column I lists certain geometric shapes and Column II describes certain properties of geometric shapes. For each item in Column I, choose ALL the correct options in Column II.

Column I:
(i) Parallelogram
(ii) Rhombus
(iii) Rectangle

Column II:
(A) Diagonals bisect each other.
(B) Diagonals are perpendicular to each other.
(C) The figure includes at least one pair of equal sides.
(D) A circle drawn through any three vertices always passes through the fourth vertex.
(E) the pair of lines obtained by joining the midpoints of the opposite sides are always perpendicular to each other.

Offline AIEEE Exam for 2011 has been postponed to May 2011

The offline All India Engineering/ Architecture Entrance Examination (AIEEE) for 2011 has been postponed to May 1, a week later than the previous date of April 24, said a circular from the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) dated December 10. The CBSE conducts the AIEEE, which is the
entrance criteria for admission to the prestigious National Institutes of Technology, IIITs and other state government institutes.

MCI has permitted an increase 10,000 MBBS seats

Aiming to improve the abysmal doctor-patient ratio in India, the Medical Council of India (MCI) has permitted an increase of nearly 10,000 MBBS seats in medical colleges from this year.

This means, after five to six years, the country will produce an additional 10,000 doctors, taking the yearly output to 45,000 from the present 35,000 MBBS passouts.

MCI's Board of Governors, led by chairman Shiv Kumar Sarin, also accorded sanction for 66 new medical colleges. This was possible after MCI downsized the land requirement for starting a new medical college from the earlier stipulation of 25 acres to 10 acres. But the building size on the 10 acres need not be any smaller than the one that was permitted to be built on 25 acres. The logic — it is difficult for organisations to find 25 acres in a township or a metropolitan city.

IISc will admit its BSc course candidates on the basis of IIT-JEE scores

One more premier Indian institute has joined the Joint Entrance Exam Club. Beginning academic year 2011, the Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore will admit candidates to its new Bachelors in Science course on the basis of their IIT-JEE scores.

Director General School Education–cum-State Project Director, Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Authority, Punjab invites applications for the Test to be conducted for filling up the posts on Contract Basis in various districts as per details given below.

IIT-JEE 2010 Solved Question Paper (I & II) By FIITJEE

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

INSTRUCTIONS:

A. General:
1. This Question Paper contains 32 pages having 84 questions.
2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner of this sheet and also on the back page (page no. 32) of this booklet.
3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clipboards, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed.
5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.
6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.
7. Do not break the seals of the question – paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS:
8. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts.
9. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a change of the Booklet.
10. Write your Registration No., Name and Name of centre and sign with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these any where else.
11. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil.

C. Question paper format and Marking scheme:
12. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics and Physics). Each part consists of four Sections.
13. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (−1) mark will be awarded.
14. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. Partial marks will be awarded for partially correct answers. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
15. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases, minus one (−1) mark will be awarded.
16. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. No negative marks will be awarded for in this Section.

Central Board of Secondary Education

• No. CBSE/Rectt. Cell/20101362
• Dated:23.12.2010

Applications are invited from Indian Citizens for admission to undergraduate courses in Engineering / Technology / Architecture/Medical/ Dental and Pharmacy in Universities/Colleges in West Bengal for the academic session 2011-2012, on the basis of a JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, to be conducted by the "WEST BENGAL JOINT ENTRANCE EXAMINATIONS BOARD".

Eligibility Criteria :

The applicant must be a citizen of India and should have passed the H.S.(10+2) or its equivalent examination. The general candidates must have to secure at least 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics or Biology taken together (40% for SC/ST candidates) and at least 30% marks in English (for all categories). In addition, candidates must secure at least pass marks in the subjects individually including vernacular (or any other fifth subject) as mentioned below: B.E/B.Tech./B.Arch :Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics, English and vernacular or any other fifth subject. M.B.B.S/B.D.S. : Physics, Chemistry, Biology, English and vernacular or any other fifth subject.

PHARMACY: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics or Biology, English and vernacular or any other fifth subject. For MBBS and BDS courses : In addition to the aforesaid eligibility criteria, the general candidates must have to secure at least 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Biological Sciences taken together (40% for SC/ST) in the Joint Entrance Examination, W.B. Candidates appearing in the qualifying examination in 2011 will be allowed to sit for JEM-2011 provisionally and their admission, if merit listed, will be subjected to satisfying the minimum requirements of eligibility as specified above.

Central Board of Secondary Education

By: Aakash Institute

Though every care has been taken to provide the answers correctly but the Institute shall not be responsible for error, if any.

Board of School Education Haryana

Board of School Education, Haryana

THE 10th CBSE-HERITAGE INDIA QUIZ 2010

NATIONAL FINALS
Wednesday 8th December, 2010

The CBSE Heritage India Quiz 2010 organized by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)  for schools across India and abroad, culminated in grand finale at the Bal Bharti Public School, Parwana Road, Pitam Pura on 8th December 2010.  The final round witnessed keen competition among the teams from Summer Fields School, Gurgaon, Delhi Public School, Digboi, New Era Public School, New Delhi and Springdales School, Amritsar.  The Quiz was conducted by Shri Gautam Bose, Grey Cells. Mr.Vineet Joshi, Chairman CBSE was the Chief Guest for the event.  He gave away the Rolling Trophy, Certificates and Cash Prizes to the finalists. Mr.Shashi Bhushan, Director (Academic) was also present in the function. Mrs.Meenu Goswami, Principal of the host school welcomed the guests and the Participants.

The final was the culmination of a process that began four months ago with a written preliminary test on 28th August, 2010 with around three thousand participants held at 69 centres across India and even abroad.  The top 78 teams competed in the 12 regional rounds conducted in Chennai, Kochi, Patna, New Delhi, NOIDA, Vadodara, Jaipur, Gurgaon, Amritsar and Bhubaneshwar out of which 12 teams qualified for Semi finals.

The semi finals were held at Bal Bharti Public School, NOIDA on 7th December, 2010.