Diagnostic Mock Test on CLAT Pattern
SECTION V: LOGICAL REASONING
161. Looking at the photograph of a girl a man said, “She is the only daughter of the mother-in-law of my wife’s son.” How is the man related to the girl in the photograph?
(a) uncle (b) father
(c) father-in-law (d) none of these
162. A man is facing the south-east direction. He goes straight and takes a 135 degree turn in the anticlockwise direction followed by a 90 degree turn in the clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(a) East (b) West
(c) South (d) none of these
163. Find the next term of the series 1, 3, 9, 19?
Directions for questions 164–166: The students of a college had to be administered assessments in a particular week. The assessments will be in five areas, namely, verbal, quant, reasoning, GD and interview and would be conducted one on each day from Monday to Friday subject to the following conditions:
1. Reasoning cannot be the first assessment to be conducted.
2. There should be a gap of exactly two days between the GD and interview assessments.
3. The verbal assessment will be conducted on Thursday.
164. Which assessment will be scheduled on Monday?
(a) quant (b) GD
(c) interview (d) cannot be determined
165. If the interview is to be scheduled before the verbal assessment, which area will be assessed on the last day?
(d) cannot be determined
166. In how many different ways can the assessments be conducted?
(a) one (b) two
(c) three (d) more than three
Directions for questions 167–169: In a particular language, the words are coded using different digits but in no particular order as mentioned below:
REST : 5296
TIME : 7621
167. What is the code for I in this language?
(a) 7 (b) 6
(c) 2 (d) 1
168. Which among the following can be the code for RIME?
(a) 9716 (b) 6759
(c) 2179 (d) 9765
169. Which alphabet is represented by 5?
(a) T (b) S
(c) R (d) E
170. A is the father of B’s sister and the brother of E. D, son-in-law of C, is the husband of E. How is B’s mother related to C?
(a) daughter (b) sister
(c) daughter-in-law (d) cousin
171. A man goes straight for 18 m, takes a right turn to walk a further distance of 24 m and stops. How far is the man from the starting point?
(a) 30 m (b) 42 m
(c) 6 m (d) none of these
172. Find the wrong term in the following series. 5, 11, 21, 43, 87?
(a) 21 (b) 43
(c) 87 (d) 11
173. In a school there are 20 boys and 15 girls. Each boy will play one game with every other boy and each girl will play one game with every other girl. Find the total number of matches to be played?
(a) 190 (b) 590
(c) 105 (d) 295
174. If MOTHER is coded as SOHSMZ in a certain language, how will SISTER be coded in the same language?
(a) SUHMYZ (b) SUHMYY
(c) SVHMYZ (d) SVHMYY
175. A cube of side 6 cm is cut into small cubes of side 1.5 cm each. Find the number of small cubes?
(a) 27 (b) 25
(c) 16 (d) 64
Directions (176–180): Read the following statements and identify if the given assumptions are implicit. Mark your answer as:
(a) I is implicit
(b) II is implicit
(c) Both I and II are implicit
(d) Neither is implicit
176. An advertisement, “David Guetta Live in Delhi. Tickets at Rs 3000 onwards”.
I. People enjoy reading David Guetta.
II. People do not care who is David Guetta.
177. As in the case of the December 2012 incident, the latest instance of rape reveals an appalling lack of visible policing in large parts of Delhi, a city of vast distances and many lonely stretches.
I. Visible policing would help control or reduce such incidents.
II. Long and lonely stretches of roads are the only reasons why such incidents happen.
178. In the meeting between the PM and the various CMs, a point on which consensus appeared to have emerged is that power and planning should be decentralised and States should be empowered to plan, design and manage schemes based on what fits them best.
I. States have the desire to manage such schemes.
II. PM is ready to relinquish power from the Centre to the States in areas of planning.
179. There is, however, not much clarity on the traditional role of the Planning
Commission, including its job of sitting in on expenditure committee meetings. I. The Planning Commission is being given a new role.
II. The Planning Commission is losing its relevance as the government’s
180. Seeking permission to contest in the BCCI election, N. Srinivasan has given an undertaking in the Supreme Court to keep out of IPL matters if elected as BCCI president till he gets clean chit from the high power panel.
I. The Supreme Court does not want Srinivasan to be involved in BCCI matters.
II. Srinivasan has committed a crime.
Directions (181–185): Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:
181. Tiny Tots, a chain of toy stores, has relied on a “supermarket concept” of computerised inventory control and customer self-service to eliminate the category of salesmen from its force of employees. It now plans to employ the same concept in selling children’s clothes.
The plan of Tiny Tots assumes:
(a) Supermarkets will not also be selling children’s clothes in the same manner.
(b) Personal service by sales personnel is not required for selling children’s
(c) The same kind of computers will be used in inventory control for both clothes and toys at Tiny Tots.
(d) A self-service plan cannot be employed without computerised inventory control
182. Continuous indoor fluorescent light benefits the health of hamsters with inherited heart disease. A group of them exposed to continuous fluorescent light survived
25 per cent longer than a similar group exposed instead to equal periods of indoor fluorescent light and of darkness.
The method of the research described above is most likely to be applicable in addressing which of the following questions?
(a) Can industrial workers who need to see their work do so better by sunlight or by fluorescent light?
(b) Can hospital lighting be improved to promote the recovery of patients?
(c) How do deep-sea fish survive in total darkness?
(d) What are the inherited illnesses to which hamsters are subject?
183. Millions of identical copies of a plant can be produced using new tissue-culture and cloning techniques.
If plant propagation by such methods in laboratories proves economical, each of the following, if true, represents a benefit of the new techniques to farmers except:
(a) The techniques allow the development of superior strains to take place more rapidly, requiring fewer generations of plants grown to maturity.
(b) It is less difficult to care for plants that will grow at rates that do not vary widely.
(c) Plant diseases and pests, once they take hold, spread more rapidly among genetically uniform plants than among those with genetic variations.
(d) Mechanical harvesting of crops is less difficult if plants are more uniform in size.
184. Which of the following best completes the passage below?
Sales campaigns aimed at the faltering personal computer market have strongly emphasised ease of use, called user-friendliness. This emphasis is oddly premature and irrelevant in the eyes of most potential buyers, who are trying to address the logically prior issue of whether .
(a) user-friendliness also implies that owners can service their own computers.
(b) personal computers cost more the more user-friendly they are.
(c) currently available models are user-friendly enough to suit them.
(d) they have enough sensible uses for a personal computer to justify the expense of buying one.
185. A weapons-smuggling incident recently took place in country Y. We all know that
Y is a closed society. So Y’s government must have known about the weapons.
Which of the following is an assumption that would make the conclusion above logically correct?
(a) If a government knows about a particular weapons-smuggling incident, it must have intended to use the weapons for its own purposes.
(b) If a government claims that it knew nothing about a particular weapons-smuggling incident, it must have known everything about it.
(c) If a government does not permit weapons to enter a country, it is a closed society.
(d) If a country is a closed society, its government has knowledge about everything that occurs in the country.
Directions (186–190): Read the following statements and following arguments and if they are strong or weak arguments, mark your answer as:
(a) I is strong
(b) II is strong
(c) Both I and II are strong
(d) Neither is strong
186. Should Gita be made India’s Rashtriya Granth?
I. Yes, the richness and the contemporary value of the Gita will do a lot for increasing its popularity.
II. No, it would also needlessly ruffle the feathers of Hinduism’s closer cousins
like Sikhism which already have a principal granth.
187. Should same sex marriages be allowed in India?
I. Yes. Everyone wants it to be allowed.
II. No. Not many countries allow it.
188. Should organisations using child labour be banned?
I. Yes. Children do not know what is right for them.
II. No. The UNICEF only gives a warning to such organisations and so why should we?
189. Should online taxi companies be banned?
I. Yes. They are fly-by-night operators and cannot be relied upon for service or passenger safety.
II. No. They make travel fun.
190. Should pregnant women be stopped from working?
I. Yes. Pregnant women are ill and so need to rest.
II. No. Pregnancy is not a disease and pregnant women are allowed to work.
Directions (191–195): In each of the questions given below, there are two statements labelled as Assertion
(A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
191. Assertion: The exosphere cannot support life.
Reason: There is no air and the atoms escape into space.
192. Assertion: Earthquakes frequently occur around the pacific rim or the Ring of
Fire (as it is called).
Reason: This is a direct result of plate tectonics and the movement and collisions of lithospheric plates.
193. Assertion: A large cube made from 9 small red cubes when dropped into a pot of yellow paint will have 8 small cubes with yellow paint on their faces.
Reason: All the outer surfaces of the small cubes will get immersed in the yellow paint with only the innermost cube being left untouched.
194. Assertion: Atlantis is the name of a fictional island mentioned within an allegory
on the hubris of nations in Plato’s works Timaeus and Critias.
Reason: Plato’s dialogues Timaeus and Critias, written in 360 BC, contain the
earliest references to Atlantis.
195. Assertion: The adult eels make the 6,000 km (3,700 mi) open ocean journey back to their spawning grounds north of the Antilles, Haiti, and Puerto Rico.
Reason: These migrating eels are typically called “Silver Eels” or “Big Eyes”.
Directions (196–200): Below in each of the questions are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statements. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
(a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
(b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.
(c) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.
(d) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.
196. I. The UP State Government has announced the creation of a lion safari in the
II. The MP State Government has bought 500 new ambulances for the State health services.
197. I. There are frequent traffic jams in one area of the city for the last two weeks.
II. Many celebrities have been frequenting the city for the last two weeks.
198. I. Modi tweeted a welcome message in Russian today.
II. Putin arrives in India for a two day visit.
199. I. The government has announced a five per cent increase in national income yesterday.
II. The stock market is rising for last one day.
200. I. DM has announced changed school timings to be 9 a.m. to 2 p.m. applicable from tomorrow.
II. The temperature in the city has fallen to almost five degrees.
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
1. (b) 2. (c)
3. (d) 4. (c)
5. (c) 6. (a)
7. (b) 8. (b)
9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (b)
15. (d) 16. (c)
17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (b)
23. (d) 24. (d)
25. (c) 26. (b)
27. (d) 28. (a)
29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (b)
33. (b) 34. (d)
35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (b) 38. (b)
39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (d)
45. (a) 46. (d)
47. (a) 48. (c)
49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (a)
53. (c) 54. (b)
55. (b) 56. (c)
57. (a) 58. (a)
59. (c) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d)
63. (b) 64. (c)
65. (c) 66. (a)
67. (a) 68. (c)
69. (b) 70. (a)
71. (c) 72. (d)
73. (d) 74. (c)
75. (d) 76. (b)
77. (d) 78. (d)
79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (a) 82. (a)
83. (d) 84. (b)
85. (c) 86. (a)
87. (d) 88. (b)
89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (c) 92. (d)
93. (a) 94. (c)
95. (d) 96. (a)
97. (d) 98. (b)
99. (a) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (c)
103. (c) 104. (b)
105. (b) 106. (c)
107. (d) 108. (a)
109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (c) 112. (c)
113. (c) 114. (c)
115. (b) 116. (c)
117. (a) 118. (b)
119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (c) 122. (c)
123. (a) 124. (b)
125. (a) 126. (c)
127. (d) 128. (a)
129. (b) 130. (a)
131. (b) 132. (a)
133. (b) 134. (c)
135. (b) 136. (c)
137. (c) 138. (a)
139. (b) 140. (d)
141. (b) 142. (c)
143. (c) 144. (a)
145. (c) 146. (b)
147. (b) 148. (c)
149. (c) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (c)
153. (b) 154. (c)
155. (c) 156. (b)
157. (a) 158. (d)
159. (b) 160. (d)
161. (c) 162. (a)
163. (d) 164. (a)
165. (c) 166. (b)
167. (d) 168. (a)
169. (b) 170. (c)
171. (a) 172. (c)
173. (d) 174. (c)
175. (d) 176. (d)
177. (a) 178. (c)
179. (d) 180. (a)
181. (b) 182. (b)
183. (c) 184. (d)
185. (d) 186. (b)
187. (d) 188. (d)
189. (a) 190. (b)
191. (c) 192. (a)
193. (a) 194. (b)
195. (b) 196. (c)
197. (d) 198. (b)
199. (a) 200. (b)
ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS
SECTION V: LOGICAL REASONING
161. (c) Mother-in-law of the son of the man’s wife will be the mother of the man’s son’s wife and so the man will be the lady’s father-in-law.
162. (a) The net effect of a 135 degree turn anticlockwise and a 90 degree turn clockwise will be a 45 degree turn anticlockwise and so the final direction will be East.
163. (d) The differences are 2, 6, 10 and so on. Therefore, the next difference must be
14 and so the required term = 19+14 = 33.
General explanation for questions 164–166
x x x Verbal x
1. Also, there must be a gap of 2 days between the GD and interview assessment.
Therefore, neither GD nor the interview assessment can be on Monday.
So, one out of GD or interview assessment will be on Tuesday and the other one will be on Friday.
2. Reasoning cannot be scheduled on Monday and so reasoning will get scheduled on Wednesday and quant will get scheduled on Monday.
Quant x GD/Interview x Reasoning x Verbal x GD/Interview.
General explanation for questions 167–169
We first compare MORE, REST and their codes. R and E will be 6 and 9 in no particular order. Comparing with TIME, E will be 6 and R will be 9.
Comparing MORE and TIME, M will be 7 and so O will be 8. T will be 2 and S will be 5.
I will be 1.
171. (a) Required value = √182+242
= √324+576 = √900 = 30.
172. (c) The series is (multiplied by 2) +1, (multiplied by 2) –1 and so on.
Therefore, 43 x 2–1 = 86–1 = 85.
173. (d) 20C2 + 15C2 = 295.
174. (c) The basis of coding is one from the back and one from the front alternately with an increment of one.
175. (d) n = 6 cm / 1.5 cm = 4
Number of small cubes = 4 x 4 x 4 = 64.
176. (d) Neither is implicit. The Ad mentions a David Guetta live in Delhi. From nowhere can it be assumed that he is a writer. II again cannot be assumed.
177. (a) Only I can be assumed. If criminals knew that cops were about, they would be less inclined to commit such crimes; also policing would ensure that nobody could stop on such roads for extended periods of time without a cop stopping over. II cannot be assumed to be the only reason behind rapes and other such violent crimes.
178. (c) Both I and II are implicit. Since a consensus has emerged, so it means that both I and II are implicit.
179. (d) Neither can be assumed from the given statement.
180. (a) Only I can be assumed from the given statement as if the Supreme Court
wanted Srinivasan to be involved in BCCI matters, he would not have to give the undertaking that he has given. II cannot be assumed.
181. (b) In selling toys, there is no real need for salesmen but when selling clothes, generally people expect to get personal services and this is what the Tiny Tots store assumes not to be true. So they take the idea that no personal selling is required for clothes and base the new concept on it.
182. (b) Here the idea is to take each and work backwards from there. Frame each option into a question and see if the argument would be helpful in answering that question and this is how you can arrive at an answer.
183. (c) Look for the one that is not a benefit. So (c) is the only one which says that there will be a problem with the cloned varieties due to genetic similarities.
184. (d) Here we are looking at the first step of the buying process and that needs identification. Once a person has determined if they need a personal computer, then and only then will they worry about the user friendliness or other features of the PC. So (d) has to be the correct answer.
185. (d) As assumption is one which if not true would make the argument incorrect. If (d) is negated then the argument would become false and so it is the correct answer.
186. (b) Only II is a strong argument. (a) mentions increasing the popularity but the question is not looking at increasing the popularity of the Gita. (b) is a strong argument because it gives us a reason why making Gita India’s principal granth would not be a good idea.
187. (d) Neither is strong. I is weak as it is ambiguous. II is irrelevant, so it is weak.
188. (d) Neither is strong. I is not strong as it does not answer the question whether such organisation should be banned or not. II is not strong as it asks a question and does not give a reason.
189. (a) I is a strong argument as it gives a strong reason of safety and service for banning these taxi services. II is an irrelevant argument as it has no impact on the issue at hand.
190. (b) I is weak as it is factually incorrect. II answers the question being asked and so it is a strong argument.
191. (c) A is true but R is false. Refer Google.
192. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Refer Google.
193. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. Refer Google.
194. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Refer
195. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. Refer
196. (c) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. Both States must be doing these for their own purposes so they have to be effects of independent causes.
197. (d) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. It is possible that a festival has been going on in an area of the city and that is why there are jams in that area and also why so many celebrities are frequenting the city. The connect between the two is the two week period otherwise these could have been effects of independent causes also.
198. (b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. Putin arrived in India and that is why Modi tweeted a welcome message in Russian. So II is cause and I is effect.
199. (a) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
200. (b) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. Ask why with I and you will get II as the answer.
ANALYSE YOUR PERFORMANCE
A normal section with some bouncers which are not common. However, anyone who has given more than 2 mocks would recognise most of these questions. As is the case normally, the questions were from past years’ papers with some twists to keep the mind running. Completely new questions were also present which cause the test-taker to think before an answer. All in all an interesting section which was a mixture of old and new at the same time; thus, it prepared the student for the fact that questions are repeated and also not to panic in case of any deviation from the said repetition.
1. Analytical: The analytical section was not too tough, though some blazers existed which forced the student to think about the questions and apply the basic concepts. The question type should not have been alien for a student who had gone through the material, but some of the questions were tricky. A score of 11+ would be good and below 8 would need hard work.
2. Assumption questions: A couple of questions which have obvious answers, most of the section cannot be judged objectively due to the variety of correct answers. At least 2 out of the 5 questions had fairly obvious answers while the others needed a bit of thinking. The section would have taken time and should have been left for the end.
3. Passage-based: An easy section, each question would require one reading of the passage to get the answer, the scores should range between 4 and 5.
4. Strong–Weak: Can’t say, questions seem tricky and need concentrated reading a couple of times to understand what the question requires and following that answering should become easy; however, answers may vary even after that.
5. Assertion–Reasoning: GK based questions with maths as well, the section requires fair knowledge of science and literature, anything above 1–2 would be good.
6. Cause–Effect: Simple section, no blazers which make the section tough, it is easy to understand where connections exist and where none are possible, 3 would be average while a 5 would not be unachievable.