(NCERT Ebook): India-Unity in Cultural Diversity

India-Unity in Cultural Diversity

Contents :

Chapter                Page No.

NCERT  Science Question Paper (Class-9)

Chapter 1 Matter In Our Surroundings

Question 1. Which of the following are matter? Chair, air, love, smell, hate, almonds, thought, cold, colddrink, smell of perfume.

Question 2. Give reasons for the following observation: The smell of hot sizzling food reaches you several metres away, but to get the smell from cold food you have to go close.

Question 3. A diver is able to cut through water in a swimming pool. Which property of matter does this observation show?

Question 4. What are the characteristics of the particles of matter?

Question 5. The mass per unit volume of a substance is called density. (density = mass/volume). Arrange the following in order of increasing density – air, exhaust from chimneys, honey, water, chalk, cotton and iron.

Question 6. (a) Tabulate the differences in the characterisitcs of states of matter. (b) Comment upon the following: rigidity, compressibility, fluidity, filling a gas container, shape, kinetic energy and density.

Question 7. Give reasons
(a) A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept.
(b) A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container. (c) A wooden table should be called a solid. (d) We can easily move our hand in air but to do the same through a solid block of wood we need a karate expert.

Question 8. Liquids generally have lower density as compared to solids. But you must have observed that ice floats on water. Find out why.

Question 9. Convert the following temperature to celsius scale: a. 300 K b. 573 K.

Question 10. What is the physical state of water at: a. 250ºC b. 100ºC ? 3. For any substance, why does the temperature remain constant during the change of state? 4. Suggest a method to liquefy atmospheric gases.

Question 11. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day?

Question 12. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during summer?

Question 13. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone or petrol or perfume on it? 4. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather than a cup?

Question 14. What type of clothes should we wear in summer?

Question 15 1. Convert the following temperatures to the Celsius scale.

(a) 300 K
(b) 573 K.
 
Question 16. Convert the following temperatures to the Kelvin scale.

(a) 25°C
(b) 373°C.

Question 17. Give reason for the following observations.

(a) Naphthalene balls disappear with time without leaving any solid.
(b) We can get the smell of perfume sitting several metres away.

Question 18. Arrange the following substances in increasing order of forces of attraction between the particles— water, sugar, oxygen.

Question 19. What is the physical state of water at—

(a) 25°C
(b) 0°C
(c) 100°C ?

Question 20. Give two reasons to justify—

(a) water at room temperature is a liquid.
(b) an iron almirah is a solid at room temperature.

Question 21. Why is ice at 273 K more effective in cooling than water at the same temperature?

Question 22. What produces more severe burns, boiling water or steam?

Question 23. Name A,B,C,D,E and F in the following diagram showing change in its state

Chapter 2 Is Matter Around Us Pure

Question 1. What is meant by a pure substance?

Question 2. List the points of differences between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures.

Question 3. Differentiate between homogeneous and heterogeneous mixtures with examples.

Question 4. How are sol solution and suspension different from each other?

Question 5. To make a saturated solution 36 g of sodium chloride is dissolved in 100 g of water at 293 K. Find its concentration at this temperature.

Question 6. How will you separate a mixture containing kerosene and petrol (difference in their boiling points is more than 25ºC) which are miscible with each other?

Question 7. Name the technique to separate

(i) butter from curd
(ii) salt from sea-water
(iii) camphor from salt.

Question 8. What type of mixtures are separated by the technique of crystallisation?

Question 9. Classify the following as chemical or physical changes:

• cutting of trees

• melting of butter in a pan

• rusting of almirah

• boiling of water to form steam

• passing of electric current through water and the water breaking down into hydrogen and oxygen gases

• dissolving common salt in water

• making a fruit salad with raw fruits and

• burning of paper and wood.

Question 10. Try segregating the things around you as pure substances or mixtures. NCERT Solutions Intext Questions Page no.

Question 11. Which separation techniques will you apply for the separation of the following?

(a) Sodium chloride from its solution in water.
(b) Ammonium chloride from a mixture containing sodium chloride and ammonium chloride.
(c) Small pieces of metal in the engine oil of a car.
(d) Different pigments from an extract of flower petals.
(e) Butter from curd.
(f) Oil from water.
(g) Tea leaves from tea.
(h) Iron pins from sand.
(i) Wheat grains from husk.
(j) Fine mud particles suspended in water.

Question 12. Write the steps you would use for making tea. Use the words solution, solvent, solute, dissolve, soluble, insoluble, filtrate and residue.

Question 13. Pragya tested the solubility of three different substances at different temperatures and collected the data as given below (results are given in the following table, as grams of substance dissolved in 100 grams of water to form a saturated solution) .

(a) What mass of potassium nitrate would be needed to produce a saturated solution of potassium nitrate in 50 grams of water at 313 K?
(b) Pragya makes a saturated solution of potassium chloride in water at 353 K and leaves the solution to cool at room temperature. What would she observe as the solution cools? Explain.
(c) Find the solubility of each salt at 293 K. Which salt has the highest solubility at this temperature?
(d) What is the effect of change of temperature on the solubility of a salt?

Question 14. Explain the following giving examples.

(a) saturated solution
(b) pure substance
(c) colloid
(d) suspension

Question 15. Classify each of the following as a homogeneous or heterogeneous mixture. soda water, wood, air, soil, vinegar, filtered tea.

Question 16. How would you confirm that a colourless liquid given to you is pure water?

Question 17. Which of the following materials fall in the category of a “pure substance”?

(a) Ice
(b) Milk
(c) Iron
(d) Hydrochloric acid
(e) Calcium oxide
(f) Mercury
(g) Brick
(h) Wood
(i) Air.

Question 18. Identify the solutions among the following mixtures.

(a) Soil
(b) Sea water
(c) Air
(d) Coal
(e) Soda water.

Question 19. Which of the following will show “Tyndall effect”?

(a) Salt solution
(b) Milk
(c) Copper sulphate solution
(d) Starch solution.

Question 20. Classify the following into elements, compounds and mixtures.

(a) Sodium
(b) Soil
(c) Sugar solution
(d) Silver
(e) Calcium carbonate
(f) Tin
(g) Silicon
(h) Coal
(i) Air
(j) Soap
(k) Methane
(l) Carbon dioxide
(m) Blood

Question 21. Which of the following are chemical changes?

(a) Growth of a plant
(b) Rusting of iron
(c) Mixing of iron filings and sand
(d) Cooking of food
(e) Digestion of food
(f) Freezing of water
(g) Burning of a candle.

Chapter 3 Atoms and Molecules

Quetion 1. In a reaction, 5.3 g of sodium carbonate reacted with 6 g of ethanoic acid. The products were 2.2 g of carbon = dioxide, 0.9 g water and 8.2 g of sodium ethanoate. Show that theseobservations are in agreement with the law of conservation of mass. sodium carbonate + ethanoic acid → sodium ethanoate + carbon dioxide + water

Quetion 2. Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the ratio of 1:8 by mass to form water. What mass of oxygen gas would be required to react completely with 3 g of hydrogen gas?

Quetion 3. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory is the result of the law of conservation of mass?

Quetion 4. Which postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory can explain the law of definite proportions?

Quetion 5. Define the atomic mass unit.

Quetion 6. Why is it not possible to see an atom with naked eyes?

Quetion 7.Following formulae:

(i) Al2(SO4)3
(ii) CaCl2
(iii) K2SO4
(iv) KNO3
(v) CaCO3.

Question 8. What is meant by the term chemical formula?

Question 9. How many atoms are present in a

(i) H2S molecule and
(ii) PO4 3– ion?

Question 10. Write down the formulae of

(i) sodium oxide
(ii) aluminium chloride
(iii) sodium suphide
(iv) magnesium hydroxide

Question 11. Write down the names of compounds represented by the

Question 12. Calculate the molecular masses of H2, O2, Cl2, CO2, CH4, C2H6, C2H4, NH3, CH3OH.

Question 13. Calculate the formula unit masses of ZnO, Na2O, K2CO3, given atomic masses of Zn = 65 u, Na = 23 u, K = 39 u, C = 12 u, and O = 16 u.

Question 14. If one mole of carbon atoms weighs 12 gram, what is the mass (in gram) of 1 atom of carbon?

Question 15. Which has more number of atoms, 100 grams of sodium or 100 grams of iron (given, atomic mass of Na = 23 u, Fe = 56 u)?

Question 16. A 0.24 g sample of compound of oxygen and boron was found by analysis to contain 0.096 g of boron and 0.144 g of oxygen. Calculate the percentage composition of the compound by weight.

Question 17 . When 3.0 g of carbon is burnt in 8.00 g oxygen, 11.00 g of carbon dioxide is produced. What mass of carbon dioxide will be formed when 3.00 g of carbon is burnt in 50.00 g of oxygen? Which law of chemical combination will govern your answer?

Question 18. What are polyatomic ions? Give examples.

Question 19 Write the chemical formulae of the following.

(a) Magnesium chloride
(b) Calcium oxide
(c) Copper nitrate
(d) Aluminium chloride
(e) Calcium carbonate.

Question 20. Give the names of the elements present in the following compounds.

(a) Quick lime
(b) Hydrogen bromide
(c) Baking powder
(d) Potassium sulphate.

Question 21. Calculate the molar mass of the following substances.

(a) Ethyne, C2H2
(b) Sulphur molecule, S8
(c) Phosphorus molecule, P4 (Atomic mass of phosphorus = 31)
(d) Hydrochloric acid, HCl
(e) Nitric acid, HN O3

Question 22. What is the mass of—

(a) 1 mole of nitrogen atoms?
(b) 4 moles of aluminium atoms (Atomic mass of aluminium = 27)?
(c) 10 moles of sodium sulphite (Na2SO3)?

Question 23. Convert into mole.

(a) 12 g of oxygen gas
(b) 20 g of water
(c) 22 g of carbon dioxide.

Question 24. What is the mass of:

(a) 0.2 mole of oxygen atoms?
(b) 0.5 mole of water molecules?

Question 25. Calculate the number of molecules of sulphur (S8) present in 16 g of solid sulphur.

Question 26. Calculate the number of aluminium ions present in 0.051 g of aluminium oxide. (Hint: The mass of an ion is the same as that of an atom of the same element. Atomic mass of Al = 27 u)

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Chapter 4 Structure of The Atom

Question 1. What are canal rays?

Question 2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Question 3. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.

Question 4. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which subatomic particle is present in the nucleus of an atom?

Question 5. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Question 6. What do you think would be the observation if the α-particle scattering experiment is carried out using a foil of a metal other than gold?  

Question 7. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Question 8. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the atom?

Question 9. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Question 10. For the symbol H,D and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them.

Question 12. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars.

Question 13. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Question 14. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?

Question 15. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Question 16. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Question 17. Compare all the proposed models of an atom given in this chapter.

Question 18. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements.

Question 19. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Question 20. Explain with examples

(i) Atomic number
(ii) Mass number
(iii) Isotopes
(iv) Isobars. Give any two uses of isotopes.

Question 21. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Question 22. If bromine atom is available in the form of, say, two isotopes 79 35 Br (49.7%) and 81 35 Br (50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

Question 23. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages of isotopes 16 8 X and 18 8 X in the sample?

Question 24. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.

Question 25. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under X Y Protons = 6 6 Neutrons = 6 8 Give the mass numbers of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?

Question 26. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.
(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore, it is neutral.
(c) The mass of an electron is about 1 2000 times that of proton.
(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine. Put tick () against correct choice and cross (×) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17

Question 27. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

(a) Atomic Nucleus
(b) Electron
(c) Proton
(d) Neutron

Question 28. Isotopes of an element have

(a) the same physical properties
(b) different chemical properties
(c) different number of neutrons
(d) different atomic numbers.

Question 29. Number of valence electrons in Cl– ion are:

(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 17
(d) 18

Question 30. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2,8
(b) 8,2,1
(c) 2,1,8
(d) 2,8,1.

Question 31. Complete the following table.

Chapter 5 The Fundamental Unit of Life

Question 1. Who discovered cells, and how?

Question 2. Why is the cell called the structural and functional unit of life?

Question 3. How do substances like CO2 and water move in and out of the cell? Discuss.

Question 4. Why is the plasma membrane called a selectively permeable membrane?  

Question 5. Fill in the gaps in the following table illustrating differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Question 6. Can you name the two organelles we have studied that contain their own genetic material?

Question 7. If the organisation of a cell is destroyed due to some physical or chemical influence, what will happen?

Question 8. Why are lysosomes known as suicide bags?

Question 9. Where are proteins synthesised inside the cell?

Question 10. Make a comparison and write down ways in which plant cells are different from animal cells.

Question 12. How is a prokaryotic cell different from a eukaryotic cell?

Question 13. What would happen if the plasma membrane ruptures or breaks down?

Question 14. What would happen to the life of a cell if there was no Golgi apparatus?

Question 15. Which organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell? Why?

Question 16. Where do the lipids and proteins constituting the cell membrane get synthesised?

Question 17. How does an Amoeba obtain its food?

Question 18. What is osmosis?

Question 19. Carry out the following osmosis experiment: Take four peeled potato halves and scoos each one out to make potato cups. One of these potato cups should be made from a boiled potato. Put each potato cup in a trough containing water. Now,

(a) Keep cup A empty
(b) Put one teaspoon sugar in cup B
(c) Put one teaspoon salt in cup C
(d) Put one teaspoon sugar in the boiled potato cup D.

Keep these for two hours. Then observe the four potato cups and answer the following:
(i) Explain why water gathers in the hollowed portion of B and C.
(ii) Why is potato A necessary for this experiment?
(iii) Explain why water does not gather in the hollowed out portions of A and D.

Chapter 7 Diversity In Living Organisms

Question 1. Why do we classify organisms?

Question 2. Give three examples of the range of variations that you see in lifeforms around you

Question 3. Which do you think is a more basic characteristic for classifying organisms?

(a) The place where they live.
(b) The kind of cells they are made of. Why?

Question 4. What is the primary characteristic on which the first division of organisms is made?

Question 5. On what bases are plants and animals put into different categories?

Question 6. Which organisms are called primitive and how are they different from the so-called advanced organisms?

Question 7. Will advanced organisms be the same as complex organisms? Why?

Question 8. What is the criterion for classification of organisms as belonging to kingdom Monera or Protista?

Question 9. In which kingdom will you place an organism which is singlecelled, eukaryotic and photosynthetic?

Question 10. In the hierarchy of classification, which grouping will have the smallest number of organisms with a maximum of characteristics in common and which will have the largest number of organisms?

Question 11. Which division among plants has the simplest organisms?

Question 12. How are pteridophytes different from the phanerogams?

Question 13. How do gymnosperms and angiosperms differ from each other?

Question 14. How do poriferan animals differ from coelenterate animals?

Question 15. How do annelid animals differ from arthropods?

Question 16. What are the differences between amphibians and reptiles?

Question 17. What are the differences between animals belonging to the Aves group and those in the mammalia group?

Question 18. What are the advantages of classifying organisms?

Question 19. How would you choose between two characteristics to be used for developing a hierarchy in classification?

Question 20. Explain the basis for grouping organisms into five kingdoms.

Question 21. What are the major divisions in the Plantae? What is the basis for these divisions?

Question 22. How are the criteria for deciding divisions in plants different from the criteria for deciding the subgroups among animals?

Question 23. Explain how animals in Vertebrata are classified into further subgroups.

Chapter 8 Motion

Question 1. An object has moved through a distance. Can it have zero displacement? If yes, support your answer with an example.

Question 2. A farmer moves along the boundary of a square field of side 10 m in 40 s. What will be the magnitude of displacement of the farmer at the end of 2 minutes 20 seconds?

Question 3. Which of the following is true for displacement?

(a) It cannot be zero.
(b) Its magnitude is greater than the distance travelled by the object.

Question 4. Distinguish between speed and velocity.

Question 5. Under what condition(s) is the magnitude of average velocity of an object equal to its average speed?

Question 6. What does the odometer of an automobile measure?

Question 7. What does the path of an object look like when it is in uniform motion?

Question 5. During an experiment, a signal from a spaceship reached the ground station in five minutes. What was the distance of the spaceship from the ground station? The signal travels at the speed of

Question 8. When will you say a body is in

(i) uniform acceleration?
(ii) nonuniform acceleration?

Question 9. A bus decreases its speed from 80 km h–1 to 60 km h–1 in 5 s. Find the acceleration of the bus.

Question 10. A train starting from a railway station and moving with uniform acceleration attains a speed 40 km h–1 in 10 minutes. Find its acceleration.

Question 11. What is the nature of the distance-time graphs for uniform and non-uniform motion of an object?

Question 12. What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance-time graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 13. What can you say about the motion of an object if its speedtime graph is a straight line parallel to the time axis?

Question 14. What is the quantity which is measured by the area occupied below the velocity-time graph?

Question 15. A bus starting from rest moves with a uniform acceleration of 0.1 m s-2 for 2 minutes. Find

(a) The speed acquired,
(b) The distance travelled

Question 16. A train is travelling at a speed of 90 km h–1. Brakes are applied so as to produce a uniform acceleration of – 0.5 m s-2. Find how far the train will go before it is brought to rest.

Question 17. A trolley, while going down an inclined plane, has an acceleration of 2 cm s-2. What will be its velocity 3 s after the start?

Question 18. A racing car has a uniform acceleration of 4 m s-2. What distance will it cover in 10 s after start?

Question 19. A stone is thrown in a vertically upward direction with a velocity of 5 m s-1. If the acceleration of the stone during its motion is 10 m s–2 in the downward direction, what will be the height attained by the stone and how much time will it take to reach there?

Question 20. An athlete completes one round of a circular track of diameter 200 m in 40 s. What will be the distance covered and the displacement at the end of 2 minutes 20 s?

Question 21. Joseph jogs from one end A to the other end B of a straight 300 m road in 2 minutes 50 seconds and then turns around and jogs 100 m back to point C in another 1 minute. What are Joseph’s average speeds and velocities in jogging

(a) from A to B and
(b) from A to C?

Question 22. Abdul, while driving to school, computes the average speed for his trip to be 20 km h–1. On his return trip along the same route, there is less traffic and the average speed is 40 km h–1. What is the average speed for Abdul’s trip?

Question 23. A motorboat starting from rest on a lake accelerates in a straight line at a constant rate of 3.0 m s–2 for 8.0 s. How far does the boat travel during this time?

Question 24. A driver of a car travelling at 52 km h–1 applies the brakes and accelerates uniformly in the opposite direction. The car stops in 5 s. Another driver going at 3 km h–1 in another car applies his brakes slowly and stops in 10 s. On the same graph paper, plot the speed versus time graphs for the two cars. Which of the two cars travelled farther after the brakes were applied?

Chapter 9 Force and Laws of Motion

NCERT Hindi Question Paper (Class-9)

Chapter 1 do Bailo ki Katha

NCERT English Question Paper (Class-9)

Chapter 1 The Fun they Had

Question 1:

1. Find the sentences in the lesson which have the adverbs given in the box below. awfully sorrowfully completely loftily carefully differently quickly nonchalantly

2. Now use these adverbs to fill in the blanks in the sentences below.

(i) The report must be read __________ so that performance can be improved.
(ii) At the interview, Sameer answered our questions __________ shrugging his shoulders.
(iii) We all behave __________ when we are tired or hungry.
(iv) The teacher shook her head __________ when Ravi lied to her.
(v) I __________ forgot about it.
(vi) When I complimented Revathi on her success, she just smiled __________ and turned away.
(vii) The President of the Company is __________busy and will not be able to meet you.
(viii) I finished my work __________ so that I could go out to play.

3. Make adverbs from these adjectives.

(i) angry __________ (ii) happy __________
(iii) merry __________ (iv) sleepy __________
(v) easy __________ (vi) noisy __________
(vii) tidy __________ (viii) gloomy __________

Question 1: Answer these questions in a few words or a couple of sentences each.

1. How old are Margie and Tommy?
2. What did Margie write in her diary?
3. Had Margie ever seen a book before?
4. What things about the book did she find strange?
5. What do you think a telebook is?
6. Where was Margie’s school? Did she have any classmates?
7. What subjects did Margie and Tommy learn?

Question 2: Answer the following with reference to the story.

1. “I wouldn’t throw it away.”

(i) Who says these words?
(ii) What does ‘it’ refer to?
(iii) What is it being compared with by the speaker?

2. “Sure they had a teacher, but it wasn’t a regular teacher. It was a man.”

(i) Who does ‘they’ refer to?
(ii) What does ‘regular’ mean here?
(iii) What is it contrasted with?

Question 3: Answer each of these questions in a short paragraph (about 30 words).

1. What kind of teachers did Margie and Tommy have?
2. Why did Margie’s mother send for the County Inspector?
3. What did he do?
4. Why was Margie doing badly in geography? What did the Country Inspector do to help her?
5. What had once happened to Tommy’s teacher?
6. Did Margie have regular days and hours for school? If so, why?
7. How does Tommy describe the old kind of school?
8. How does he describe the old kind of teachers?

Question 4: Answer each of these questions in two or three paragraphs (100 − 150 words)

1. What are the main features of the mechanical teachers and the schoolrooms thatMargie and Tommy have in the story?
2. Why did Margie hate school? Why did she think the old kind of school must havebeen fun?
3. Do you agree with Margie that schools today are more fun than the school in thestory? Give reasons for your answer.

Chapter 2 The Sound of Music

Question 1: Answer these questions in a few words or a couple of sentences each.

1. How old was Evelyn when she went to the Royal Academy of Music?
2. When was her deafness first noticed? When was it confirmed?

Question 2: Answer each of these questions in a short paragraph (30 - 40 words).

1. Who helped her to continue with music? What did he do and say?
2. Name the various places and causes for which Evelyn performs.

Question 3: Answer the question in two or three paragraphs (100 - 150 words).

1. How does Evelyn hear music?

Question 1: Tick the right answer.

1. The (shehnai, pungi) was a ‘reeded noisemaker.’
2. (Bismillah Khan, A barber, Ali Bux) transformed the pungi into a shehnai.
3. Bismillah Khan’s paternal ancestors were (barbers, professional musicians).
4. Bismillah Khan learnt to play the shehnai from (Ali Bux, Paigambar Bux, Ustad Faiyaaz Khan).
5. Bismillah Khan’s first trip abroad was to (Afghanistan, U.S.A., Canada).

Question 3: Answer these questions in 30 - 40 words.

1. Why did Aurangzeb ban the playing of the pungi?
2. How is a shehnai different from a pungi?
3. Where was the shehnai played traditionally? How did Bismillah Khan change this?
4. When and how did Bismillah Khan get his big break?
5. Where did Bismillah Khan play the shehnai on 15 August 1947? Why was the event historic?
6. Why did Bismillah Khan refuse to start a shehnai school in the U.S.A.?
7. Find at least two instances in the text which tell you that Bismillah Khan loves India and Benaras.

Question 1: Complete the following sentences. Beginning with a to-verb, try to answer the questions in brackets.

1. The school sports team hopes __________ (What does it hope to do?)
2. We all want __________ (What do we all want to do?)
3. They advised the hearing-impaired child’s mother __________(What did they advise her to do?)
4. The authorities permitted us to __________ (What did the authorities permit us to do?)
5. A musician decided to __________ (What did the musician decide to do?)

Question 2: From the text on Bismillah Khan, find the words and phrases that match these definitions and write them down. The number of the paragraph where you will find the words/ phrases has been given for you in brackets.

1. the home of royal people (1) __________
2. the state of being alone (5) __________
3. a part which is absolutely necessary (2) __________
4. to do something not done before (5) __________
5. without much effort (13) __________
6. quickly and in large quantities (9) __________ and __________

Question 3: Tick the right answer.

1. When something is revived, it (remains dead/lives again).
2. When a government bans something, it wants it (stopped/started).
3. When something is considered auspicious, (welcome it/avoid it).
4. When we take to something, we find it (boring/interesting).
5. When you appreciate something, you (find it good and useful/find it of no use).
6. When you replicate something, you do it (for the first time/for the second time).
7. When we come to terms with something, it is (still upsetting/no longer upsetting).

Chapter 3 The Little Girl

Question 1: Given below are some emotions that Kezia felt. Match the emotions in the Column A with the items in Column B.

Question 2: Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

1. Why was Kezia afraid of her father?
2. Who were the people in Kezia’s family?
3. What was Kezia’s father’s routine

(i) before going to his office?
(ii) after coming back from his office?
(iii) on Sundays?

4. In what ways did Kezia’s grandmother encourage her to get to know her father better?

Question 3: Discuss these questions in class with your teacher and then write down your answers in two or three paragraphs each.

1. Kezia’s efforts to please her father resulted in displeasing him very much. How did this happen?
2. Kezia decides that there are “different kinds of fathers”. What kind of father was Mr. Macdonald, and how was he different from Kezia’s father?
3. How does Kezia begin to see her father as a human being who needs her sympathy?

Question 1: Glad, happy, pleased, delighted, thrilled and overjoyed are synonyms (words expressions that have the same or nearly the same meaning.) However, theexpress happiness in certain ways.

1. Use an appropriate word from the synonyms given above in the followinsentences. Clues are given in brackets.

(i) She was __________ by the news of her brother’s wedding. (very pleased)
(ii) I was __________to be invited to the party. (extremely pleased and exciteabout)
(iii) She was __________ at the birth of her granddaughter. (extremely happy)
(iv) The coach was __________ with his performance. (satisfied about)
(v) She was very __________ with her results. (happy about something that hahappened)

2. Study the use of the word big in the following sentence.

He was so big − his hands and his neck, especially his mouth…
Here, big means large in size.
Now, consult a dictionary and find out the meaning of big in the following sentenceThe first one has been done for you.

(i) You are a big girl now. Older
(ii) Today you are going to take the biggest decision of your career. _________
(iii) Their project is full of big ideas. _________
(iv) Cricket is a big game in our country. _________
(v) I am a big fan of Lata Mangeskar. _________
(vi) You have to cook a bit more as my friend is a big eater. _________
(vii) What a big heart you’ve got, Father dear. _________

Question 2:

1. Underline the verbs of reporting in the following sentences.

(i) He says he will enjoy the ride.
(ii) Father mentioned that he was going on a holiday.
(iii) No one told us that the shop was closed.
(iv) He answered that the price would go up.
(v) I wondered why he was screaming.
(vi) Ben told her to wake him up.
(vii) Ratan apologised for coming late to the party.

2. Some verbs of reporting are given in the box. Choose the appropriate verbs and fill in the blanks in the following sentences.

(i) “I am not afraid,” __________ the woman.
(ii) “Leave me alone,” my mother __________.
(iii) The children __________ that the roads were crowded and noisy.
(iv) “Perhaps he isn’t a bad sort of a chap after all,” __________the master.
(v) “Let’s go and look at the school ground,” __________ the sports teacher.(vi) The traffic police __________ all the passers-by to keep off the road.

Chapter 4 A Truly Beautiful Mind

Question 1: Here are some headings for paragraphs in the text. Write the number(s) of the paragraph(s) for each title against the heading. The first one is done for you.

(i) Einstein’s equation
(ii) Einstein meets his future wife
(iii) The making of a violinist
(iv) Mileva and Einstein’s mother
(v) A letter that launched the arms race
(vi) A desk drawer full of ideas
(vii) Marriage and divorce

Question 2: Who had these opinions about Einstein?

(i) He was boring.
(ii) He was stupid and would never succeed in life.
(iii) He was a freak.

Question 3: Explain what the reasons for the following are.

(i) Einstein leaving the school in Munich for good.
(ii) Einstein wanting to study in Switzerland rather than in Munich.
(iii) Einstein seeing in Mileva an ally.
(iv) What do these tell you about Einstein?

Question 4: What did Einstein call his desk drawer at the patent office? Why?

Question 5: Why did Einstein write a letter to Franklin Roosevelt?

Question 6: How did Einstein react to the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?

Question 7: Why does the world remember Einstein as a “world citizen”?

Question 8: Here are some facts from Einstein’s life. Arrange them in chronological order.

•  Einstein publishes his special theory of relativity.
•  He is awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics.
•  Einstein writes a letter to U.S. President, Franklin D. Roosevelt, and warns against Germany’s building of an atomic bomb.
•  Einstein attends a high school in Munich.
•  Einstein’s family moves to Milan.
•  Einstein is born in the German city of Ulm.
•  Einstein joins a university in Zurich, where he meets Mileva.
•  Einstein dies. He provides a new interpretation of gravity.
•  Tired of the school’s regimentation, Einstein withdraws from school.
•  He works in a patent office as a technical expert.
•  When Hitler comes to power, Einstein leaves Germany for the United States.

Question 1: Here are some sentences from the story. Choose the word from the brackets which can be substituted for the italicised words in the sentences.

1. A few years later, the marriage faltered. (failed, broke, became weak)
2. Einstein was constantly at odds with people at the university. (on bad terms, in disagreement, unhappy)
3. The newspapers proclaimed his work as “a scientific revolution.” (declared, praised, showed)
4. Einstein got ever more involved in politics, agitating for an end to the arms buildup. (campaigning, fighting, supporting)
5. At the age of 15, Einstein felt so stifled that he left the school for good, (permanently, for his benefit, for a short time)
6. Five years later, the discovery of nuclear fission in Berlin had American physicists in an uproar. (in a state of commotion, full of criticism, in a desperate state)
7. Science wasn’t the only thing that appealed to the dashing young man with the walrus moustache. (interested, challenged, worried)

Question 2: Complete the sentences below by filling in the blanks with suitable participial clauses. The information that has to be used in the phrases is provided as a sentence in brackets.

1. __________, the firefighters finally put out the fire. (They worked round the clock.)
2. She watched the sunset above the mountain, __________ (She noticed the colours blending softly into one another.)
3. The excited horse pawed the ground rapidly, __________ (while it neighed continually.)
4. __________, I found myself in Bangalore, instead of Benaras. (I had taken the wrong train.)
5. __________, I was desperate to get to the bathroom. (I had not bathed for two days.)
6. The stone steps, __________needed to be replaced. (They were worn down.)
7. The actor received hundreds of letters from his fans, __________ (They asked him to send them his photograph.)

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Chapter 5 The Snake and the Mirror

Question 1: Discuss in pairs and answer each question below in a short paragraph (30 − 40 words).

1. “The sound was familiar one.” What sound did the doctor hear? What did he think it was? How many times did he hear it? (Find the places in the text.) When and why did the sounds stop?

2. What two “important” and “earth-shaking” decisions did the doctor take while he was looking into the mirror?

3. “I looked into the mirror and smiled,” says the doctor. A little later he says, “I forgot my danger and smiled feebly at myself.” What is the doctor’s opinion about himself when: (i) he first smiles, and (ii) he smiles again? In what way do his thoughts change in between, and why?sitting on his shoulder and that is when he realized the gravity of the situation.

Question 2: This story about a frightening incident is narrated in a humorous way. What makes it humorous? (Think of the contrasts it presents between dreams and reality. Some of them are listed below.)

1. (i) The kind of person the doctor is (money, possessions)
(ii) The kind of person he wants to be (appearance, ambition)

2. (i) The person he wants to marry
(ii) The person he actually marries

3. (i) His thoughts when he looks into the mirror
(ii) His thoughts when the snake is coiled around his arm

Write short paragraphs on each of these to get your answer.

Question 1: Here are some sentences from the text. Say which of them tell you, that the author:

(a) was afraid of the snake
(b) was proud of his appearance
(c) had a sense of humour
(d) was no longer afraid of the snake.

1. I was turned to stone.
2. I was no mere image cut in granite.
3. The arm was beginning to be drained of strength.
4. I tried in my imagination to write in bright letters outside my little heart the words, ‘O God’.
5. I didn’t tremble. I didn’t cry out.
6. I looked into the mirror and smiled. It was an attractive smile.
7. I was suddenly a man of flesh and blood.
8. I was after all a bachelor, and a doctor too on top of it!
9. The fellow had such a sense of cleanliness...! The rascal could have taken it and used it after washing it with soap and water.
10. Was it trying to make an important decision about growing a moustache or using eye shadow and mascara or wearing a vermilion spot on its forehead?

Question 2: Can you find the expressions in the story that tell you that the author was frightened? Read the story and complete the following sentences.

1. I was turned ___________________________________________________.
2. I sat there holding _______________________________________________.
3. In the light of the lamp I sat there like _______________________________.

Question 3: In the sentences given below some words and expressions are italicised. Thevariously mean that one

• is very frightened.
• is too scared to move.
• is frightened by something that happens suddenly.
• akes another feel frightened.

Match the meanings with the words/expressions in italics, and write the appropriatmeaning next to the sentence. The first one has been done for you.

1. I knew a man was following me, I was scared out of my wits. (very frightened)
2. I got a fright when I realised how close I was to the cliff edge.
3. He nearly jumped out of his skin when he saw the bull coming towards him.
4. You really gave me a fright when you crept up behind me like that.
5. Wait until I tell his story — it will make your hair stand on end.
6. Paralysed with fear, the boy faced his abductors.
7. The boy hid behind the door, not moving a muscle.

Question 4: Report these questions using if/whether or why/when/where/how/which/what. Remember the italicised verbs change into the past tense.

1. Meena asked her friend, “Do you think your teacher will come today?”
2. David asked his colleague, “Where will you go this summer?”
3. He asked the little boy, “Why are you studying English?”
4. She asked me, “When are we going to leave?”
5. Pran asked me, “Have you finished reading the newspaper?”
6. Seema asked her, “How long have you lived here?”
7. Sheila asked the children “Are you ready to do the work?”

Chapter 6 My Childhood

Question 1: Answer these questions in one or two sentences each.

1. Where was Abdul Kalam’s house?
2. What do you think Dinamani is the name of? Give a reason for your answer3. Who were Abdul Kalam’s school friends? What did they later become?
4. How did Abdul Kalam earn his first wages?
5. Had he earned any money before that? In what way?

Question 2: Answer each of these questions in a short paragraph (about 30 words).

1. How does the author describe:
(i) his father
(ii) his mother
(iii) himself?

2. What characteristics does he say he inherited from his parents?

Question 3: Discuss these questions in class with your teacher and then write down your answers in two or three paragraphs each.

1. “On the whole, the small society of Rameswaram was very rigid in terms of the segregation of different social groups,” says the author.

(i) Which social groups does he mention? Were these groups easily identifiable (for example, by the way they dressed)?
(ii) Were they aware only of their differences or did they also naturally share friendships and experiences? (Think of the bedtime stories in Kalam’s house; of who his friends were; and of what used to take place in the pond near his house.)
(iii) The author speaks both of people who were very aware of the differences among them and those who tried to bridge these differences. Can you identify such people in the text?
(iv) Narrate two incidents that show how differences can be created, and also how they can be resolved. How can people change their attitudes?

2. (i) Why did Abdul Kalam want to leave Rameswaram?
(ii) What did his father say to this?
(iii) What do you think his words mean? Why do you think he spoke those words?

Question 2:

1. Match the phrases in Column A with their meanings in Column B.

Question 4: Rewrite the sentences below, changing the verbs in brackets into the passive form.

1. In yesterday’s competition the prizes (give away) by the Principal.
2. In spite of financial difficulties, the labourers (pay) on time.
3. On Republic Day, vehicles (not allow) beyond this point.
4. Second-hand books (buy and sell) on the pavement every Saturday.
5. Elections to the Lok Sabha (hold) every five years.
6. Our National Anthem (compose) Rabindranath Tagore.

Question 5: Rewrite the paragraphs below, using the correct form of the verb given in brackets.

1. How Helmets Came To Be Used in Cricket Nari Contractor was the Captain and an opening batsman for India in the 1960s. The
Indian cricket team went on a tour to the West Indies in 1962. In a match against Barbados in Bridgetown, Nari Contractor (seriously injure and collapse). In those days helmets (not wear). Contractor (hit) on the head by a bouncer from Charlie Griffith. Contractor’s skull (fracture). The entire team (deeply concern). The West Indies players (worry). Contractor (rush) to hospital. He (accompany) by Frank Worrell, the Captain of the West Indies Team. Blood (donate) by the West Indies players. Thanks to the timely help, Contractor (save). Nowadays helmets (routinely use) against bowlers.

2. Oil from Seeds Vegetable oils (make) from seeds and fruits of many plants growing all over the world, from tiny sesame seeds to big, juicy coconuts. Oil (produce) from cotton seeds, groundnuts, soya beans and sunflower seeds. Olive oil (use) for cooking, salad dressing etc. Olives (shake) from the trees and (gather) up, usually by hand. The olives (ground) to a thick paste which is spread onto special mats. Then the mats (layer) up on the pressing machine which will gently squeeze them to produce olive oil.

Chapter 7 Packing

Central Board of Secondary Education

(Answer Key) Central Teacher Eligibility Test CTET December-2019

Paper-I&II

CTET DEC-2019 KEY EXAM-08/12/2019 Date. 27/12/2019