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(Olympiad) IGNOU-UNESCO Science Olympiad 2010 | Last Date : 1st August 2010


IGNOU-UNESCO SCIENCE OLYMPIAD 2010

The Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU), New Delhi, India in collaboration with the United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO), South Asia Office in New Delhi is organizing the Science Olympiad 2010 for the South Asian Countries. The purpose of the Science Olympiad is to search the science talent in all SAARC countries.

1. The test for Science Olympiad will be conducted on 2-Tier basis.

2.First Tier test:
The First Tier test shall be taken by all participants in the respective centres chosen by them.
»This First Tier test is an objective test for 3 hrs with equal weight for Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology in terms of test time and marks.
It is made up of multiple choice questions with varying degree of simplicity/ hardness.
The test will focus on the general but deep understanding of subject materials and comprehension.
The test items will be thought provoking.
There will be negative marking for wrong choices.
Answers are to be marked on OMR sheets for ready reckoning of marks.

3. Second Tier Test:
From among the participants the top (about 30 to 40 meritorious students from all SAARC countries) will take the second Tier test by being invited to Delhi.
It will test the participant’s higher level of understanding and problem solving capability.
Each question may take 5-10 minutes again with equal weight for M,P,C,B.
Also there will be a question on broader understanding of science and society, which is restricted to 10-15 minutes.
The total duration for this test will be 3 hrs
This test will be held in IGNOU, New Delhi.

4. The test material i.e. syllabus is given in detail as part of this website

5. Medium of Test : The medium of objective and written test will be English.

Eligibility Criteria

The Eligible Participants:

1. Should currently (2010-2011 academic year) be enrolled at the 11th Standard/Class level in a higher Secondary School in India or its equivalent in Afghanistan, Bangladesh., Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka.

2. Must have appeared and passed in the science branch (Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry, and Biology i.e. MPCB or their equivalent) at their 10th Standard/Class (or its equivalent) final Examination and have scored a minimum of 70%. E.g. If your scores are M=80%; P=75%; C=65% and B=70% average score is 72.5% and you are eligible to participate.If your Scores are in grades as is prevalent in some school board, it should be B1 and higher. In case, PCB is considered as a single Science subject, then the average will be between mathematics and science. Example M=85% Science=75% Average Score =80 % , Candidate becomes eligible

Exam / Class: 

(Syllabus) Written Examination Syllabi For Misc. Teachers: KVS

Written Examination Syllabi For Misc. Teachers: KVS

Part 1: Foundation of Library & Information Science.

Unit.1. Library as an Social Institution

  • Social & Historical foundations of Library.
  • Different types of libraries Academic, Public, Special their distinguishing features and functions.
  • Role of U.G.C. for development of Academic libraries.
  • Role in Library of formal and informal education. Shivaji University, Jodhpur

Unit.2 Normative Principles of Lib. & Inf. Science

GENERAL: 

(Syllabus) Written Examination Syllabi For TGT (English): KVS

Written Examination Syllabi For TGT (English): KVS

Reading Comprehension (Section - A)

Abili

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Syllabus) Written Examination Syllabi For Primary Teacher (PRT): KVS

Written Examination Syllabi For Primary Teacher (PRT): KVS

Subject paper will assess the candidates' ability in following areas:-

  • Core language Competency (Hindi and English)
  • General Science
  • General Maths
  • Environmental science

CORE LANGUAGE COMPETENCY:
The candidate should have adequate understanding of English and Hindi language to deal with students of Elementary Classes. The ability to comprehend the texts and express them effectively in writing/orally will be measured through written test and interview.

GENERAL: 

(Syllabus) RPS Branch: Teaching and Non-Teaching Posts Written Examination Syllabi : KVS

RPS Branch: Teaching and Non-Teaching Posts Written Examination Syllabi : KVS

Limited Departmental Examination for the year – 2008-09/2009-10 Syllabus for the post of

1. Vice Principal

(a) Paper – I shall be to test language proficiency (Objective Type) both in English and Hindi carrying 100 marks and each part will be of 50 marks. However, the qualifying marks in each section shall be 15 and in aggregate 35, both section combined.

(b) Paper – II shall be to test the candidate’s knowledge on Pedagogy, teaching methodology and educational psychology, Instructional leadership, etc. This will also be objective type carrying 100 marks.

(c) Paper – III will cover the subject area on academic policies of KVS, Administrative and financial rules and procedure mainly relating to leave rules, conduct and disciplinary rules sanction of advances, purchase procedure, school Management and monitoring and innovations. The paper will be descriptive type carrying 150 marks.

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(News) India unveiled a $35 access-cum-computing device for students

India unveiled a $35 access-cum-computing device for students

Human resource development minister Kapil Sibal on Thursday unveiled a $35 access-cum-computing device that could revolutionise education. The device allows users to perform tasks that meet most requirements of students — writing and storing text, browsing the internet and viewing videos, for instance.

"This represents an invitation to innovation. Other groups including private companies in India and abroad should now try and make a product even cheaper," Sibal said.

GENERAL: 

(Syllabus) PGTs (Teacher) Written Examination Syllabi : KVS

Syllabus for written examination for PGT (Biology)

Diversity of living world : Taxonomic aids, keys, specimen management ; Systematic and binomial system of nomenclature; Classification of living organisms( five kingdom classification, major groups and principles of classification within each group) ; General description of monera, protozoa, fungi, algae, bryophytes, pteridophyes, gymnosperms, angiosperms ( major groups of angiosperms upto sub class) ; Botanical gardens ,herbaria, zoological parks and museums .Salient features of animal ( nonchordates up to phylum level and chordates up to class level).

Structural organisation in plants and animals : Morphology, Anatomy and histology of angiosperms: Root , stem , leaf, flower , inflorescence, fruits and seeds, Tissues : Meristamatic and permanent ( epidermal, ground, vascular). Cambial activity, secondary growth, type of wood. Animal tissues ; Morphology, Anatomy and histology of annelids , insects , amphibians.

Structural and functional organization of cell : Cell cycle , detailed study of Cell division (mitosis , meiosis) ; Cell death ; Structure and function( metabolism) of carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and nucleic acids ; Enzymology : Classification and nomenclature of enzymes ; Structure ; Mechanism of action, single substrate and bisubstrate enzyme ; Activators and inhibitors of enzymes ; Factors affecting the activity of enzymes.

Plant physiology : Water relations: Properties of water, water in tissues and cells, Transport of water and solutes( food, nutrients, gases) : Transport across cell membrane ; soil-plant-atmosphere continuum ; Minerals required by plant, their absorbable form, functions, deficiency symptoms, essentiality of mineral, N2 metabolism, biological fixation ; Cellular Metabolism: Gluconeogenesis, Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis, hormonal regulation ; Oxidation of food, respiratory efficiency of various food components ; transport and detoxification of ammonia , Lipid Metabolism ; Photosynthesis: Basic principles of light absorption, excitation energy transfer, electron transports, cycles ( C2 , C3, C4, CAM ), plant productivity, measurement of photosynthetic parameters ; Physiological responses to abiotic stresses ; Sensory photobiology ; Plant growth regulators : Growth ,differentiation / de-differentiation and re-differentiation, development ; Physiological affects and mechanism of action of plant growth hormones, Flowering : Photoperiodism and its significance, endogenous clock and its regulation, floral induction and development, vernalisation ; Plant movements.

Human biology : Morphology, Anatomy, Histology, Physiology, Control and Disorders of Digestion, Respiration, Body fluids and Circulation, Excretion, Skeleton system & muscle, Nervous; Physiology of high altitude.

Exam / Class: 

(Admission Info) Guidelines for Admission to Kendriya Vidyalayas 2010-11


Guidelines for Admission to Kendriya Vidyalayas 2010-11

In suppression to all guidelines that have been issued admission in Kendiya Vidyalayas, the following guidelines are issued to regulate admission in the Vidyalayas with effect from the academic session 2010 - 2011.

Eligibility Age for Admission:

A child must be 5 year old in 31st march in the academic year in which admission is being sough for admission to class I and for admission to class II the age must be 6 year. For class III age must be 7 years as on 31sr March 2010. For remaining classes, the eligibility age will be calculated as on 30th September of the academic year.

Exam / Class: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XI : Accountancy Exam Paper (Bihar)

CBSE Class XI : Accountancy Exam Paper (Bihar)

SECTION-I [OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS]

General Instructions :

  • (i). All Questions are compulsory.
  • (ii). There is No negative marking for any wrong answer.
  • (iii). Questions are in two sections.

Instruction : Q. No. 1 to 25 : In the following questions there are only one correct answer. You have to choose that correct answer.

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Syllabus) Madhya Pradesh Board : Class XII - Agriculture and Home Science

(Syllabus) Madhya Pradesh Board : Class XII - Agriculture and Home Science

Section A
1. Introduction :- Scope & Importance of Agriculture in indian Economy Measures Adopted for improving production.
2. Climate :- Distribution of crop zones based on rainfall; Temperature; Atmospheric Pressure, Records.
3. Soils :- Definition of soil, composition, importance of soil, soil Texture, minerals, humus, soil, soil water & soil air.
4. Types of soils :- Classification of soil in M.P., Identification of soil. Formation and reclamation of acidic and basic soils.
5. Tillage :- Definition, objectives, Types, Tillage works – ploughing, narrowing, interculture & their implements.

Section B
6. Organic Manures :- Micro nutrients useful for plants & their general information.Farm yard manure, compost, oilkcake manures.
7. Fertilizers :- Nitrogenous, phosphoric & pottasic fertilizers
8. Weeds :- Control of weeds (Mechanical, Agricultural, Biological & Chemical methods.
9. Crops (Cultivation) :- Gram & soybean cultivation.
10. Crops (Cultivation) :- Cultivation of paddy.

GENERAL: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XII : Biology Exam Paper Year 2009 (Delhi)

CBSE Class XII : Biology Exam Paper Year 2009 (Delhi)

  • Time allowed : 3 hours
  • Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii)
This question paper consists of four Section A, B, C and D. Section A contains 8 questions of one marks each, Section B is of 10 questions of two marks each, Sections C is of 9 questions of three marks each and Sections D is of 3 questions of five marks each.
(iii)
There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks, one question of 3 marks and all the three questions of 5 marks weightage. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(iv)
Wherever necessary, the diagrams drawn should be neat and properly labeled.

SECTION – A

1. Why hnRNA is required to undergo splicing?
2.
The microscopic pollen grains of the past are obtained as fossils. Mention the characteristic of the pollen grains that makes it happen.
3.
How does colostrum provide initial protection against diseases to new born infants? Give one reason.
4.

Name the unlabelled areas ‘a’ and ‘b’ of the pie chart (given above) representing the global biodiversity of invertebrates showing their proportionate number of species of major taxa.

5. Mention the type of evolution that has brought the similarity as seen in potato tuber and sweet potato.
6.
Name the group of organisms and the substrate act on to produce biogas.
7.
Mention the pollinating agent of an inflorescence of small dull coloured flowers with well exposed stamens and large feathery stigma. Give any one characteristic of pollen grains produced by such flowers.
8.
Name the organism commercially used for the production of single cell protein.

SECTION – B

9. Explain the contribution of Thermus aquaticus in the amplification of a gene of interest.

10.

(i) What does the above diagram illustrate?
(ii) Name the parts labelled ‘a’ and ‘b’.
(iii) Name the type of cells that produce this molecule.

11. Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit whereas oranges show polyembryony. How are they different each with respect to seeds?

OR

Where are fimbriae present in a human female reproductive system? Give their function.

12. How is the translation of mRNA terminated? Explain.
13.
Explain accelerated eutrophication. Mention any two consequences of this phenomenon.
14.
List the specific symptoms of amoebiasis. Name the causative organism.
15.
A crane had DDT level as 5 ppm in its body. What would happen to the population of such birds? Explain giving reasons.
16.
Describe the responsibility of GEAC, set up by the Indian Government.

17. During the secondary treatment of the primary effluent haw does the significant decrease in BOD occur?
18.
Study the figure given below and answer the questions:

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XI : Biology Exam Paper (Bihar)

CBSE Class XI : Biology Exam Paper (Bihar)

General Instructions:

  • All Question are compulsory.
  • There is no negative marking for any wrong answer.
  • Questions are in two sections.

SECTION-I [Objective Questions]

1. Protista consists of
(a) Heterotrophic organism (b) Photoautotroph’s (c) Chemoautotroph’s (d) All of the above
Answers: (d)

2. Contractile vacuole does not occur in
(a) Slime moulds (b) sporozoa (c) Sarcodina (c) Zooflagellata
Answers: (b)

3. Lateral roots developed from
(a) Epidermis (b) Cortex (c) Endodermis (d) Pericles.
Answers: (d)

4. Bull Frog of India is
(a) Rana Tigerina (b) Rana Esculent (c) Rana sylvatica (d) All of above.
Answers: (a)

5. Ligaments connect
(a) Muscle to Muscle (b) Muscle to skin (c) Bone to Bone (d) Muscle to bone
Answers: (c)

6. Ribosome’s are synthesized in
(a) Nucleopasm (b) Nucleolus (b) Golgi apparatus (d) Cytoplasm.
Answers: (b)

7. Lactose is
(a) Fructose + Fructose (b) Glucose +| Glucose
(c) Glucose + Fructose (d) Glucose + Galaxies
Answers: (b)

8. Ph. of gastric juice is
(a) 15 “ 30 (b) 5.0 – 6.8 (c) 7.0 – 9.0 (d) 6.0 – 8.0
Answers: (a)

9. Bile are
(a) Steroids (b) Carbohydrate (c) Protein (d) Vitamins
Answers: (a)

10. Number of Milk – teeth in an infant is
(a) 12 (b) 20 (c) 32 (d) 46
Answers: (b)

Instructions : Q. No. 11 to 15 In the following questions there are two statements. Statement- I follows Statements-II. You have to go through these statements and mark your answer from the given questions.

(a) If both the statement are true & statement II is the correct explanation of Statement – I.
(b)If both the statement are true & statement- II is not correct explanation of statement – I.
(c) If statement – I is true and statement – II is false.
(d) If statement – I is false & statement – II is true.

11. Statement I “The process of reproduction does not suffer if one ovary is removed.
Statement II “The other ovary enlarge to take over the function of missing one.

Answers: (c)

12. Statement I “Entomophilies plants produce less pollen when compared to anemone-phallus plants.
Statement II “The wastage of pollen is reduced to minimum Entomophilies plantsbec abuse of the directional pollination.

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XII : Biology Exam Paper Year 2009 (Outside Delhi)

CBSE Class XII : Biology Exam Paper Year 2009 (Outside Delhi)

  • Time allowed : 3 hours

  • Maximum Marks: 70

General Instructions:

(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper consists of four Section A, B, C and D. Section A contains 8 questions of one marks each, Section B is of 10 questions of two marks each, Sections C is of 9 questions of three marks each and Sections D is of 3 questions of five marks each.
(iii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in one question of 2 marks, one question of 3 marks and all the three questions of 5 marks weightage. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(iv) Wherever necessary, the diagrams drawn should be neat and properly labeled.

SECTION – A

1. When and at what end does the ‘tailing’ of hnRNA take place?

2. Name the type of flower which favours cross pollination.

3. Name the type of cells the AIDS virus enters into after getting in the human body.

4. Name the unlabelled areas ‘a’ and ‘b’ of the pie chart representing the biodiversity of plants showing their proportionate number of species of major taxa.

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 
Exam / Class: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XI : Biology Exam Paper (Bihar)

CBSE Class XI : Biology Exam Paper (Bihar)

General Instructions:

  • (i). All Question are compulsory.
  • (ii). There is No negative marking for any wrong answer.
  • (iii). Questions are in two sections.

SECTION–I (OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS)

1. Who proposed the term protista for unicellular organism.
(a) Lister (b) Posteur (c) Hacckel (d) Koch
Answer: (c)

2. Organism having characteristic of both plant and animal
(a) Paramecium (b) Euglena (c) Mycoplasma (d) Bacteria
Answer: (b)

3. Contractile vacuole of Protozoa takes parts in
(a) Reproduction (b) Locomotion (c) Digestion (d) Osmoregulation
Answer: (d)

4. Fruit of Mustard is
(a) Siliqua (b) Cypsela (c) Nut (d) Achene
Answer: (a)

5. Corn is modification of
(a) Raoot (b) Bud (c) Stem (d) Leaf
Answer: (c)

6. The term Nucleus was coined by
(a) Brown (b) Fontana (c) Bowman (d) Golgi
Answer: (c)

7. Cilia and flagella are composed of
(a) Microtubules (b) Microfilaments

(c) Microfibrils (d) Microvilli
Answer: (a)

8. Movement of Water through semipermeale membrane produces.
(a) Wall pressure (b) Suction pressure
(C) Osmotic pressure (d) Turger pressure.
Answer: (d)

9. Weight of human liver is
(a) 6.0 Kg. (b) 5.0 Kg. (c) 3 : 0 Kg. (d) 1.5 Kg
Answer: (d)

10. Amount of Saliva secreted per day is–
(a) 330 ml (b) 550 ml (c) 750 ml (d) 1100ml
Answer: (d)

Instructions : Q. No. 11 to 15 In the following questions there are two statements. Statement- I follows Statements-II. You have to go through these statements and mark your answer from the given questions.

(a). If both the statement are true & statement II is the correct explanation of Statement – I.
(b). If both the statement are true & statement- II is not correct explanation of statement – I.
(c). If statement – I is true and statement – II is false
(d). If statement – I is false & statement – II is true.

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XI : Business Studies Exam Paper Year 2009 (Bihar)

CBSE Class XI : Business Studies Exam Paper Year 2009 (Bihar)

  • Time : 3 Hrs. + 15 Minute (Extra)
  • Total Marks : 100

General Instructions:
i. All Questions are compulsory
ii. There is No negative marking for any wrong answer.
iii. Questions are in two sections.
iv. There are internal options is some of the long answer type questions. In such questions you have to answer any one of the alternative.
v. Answer should be in your own language.
vi. No electronic gadgets like calculator, call phone, pager are allowed during exam.
vii. The answer of objective type question is to be given on supplied OMR sheet by completely darkling the appropriate answer option. For example if answer is (c) the you should fill it as shown by blue/black pen

SECTION–I

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

Instruction : Q. No. 1 to 25 : In the following questions there are only one correct answer. You have to choose that correct answer.

1. Which of the following is not a economic activity?
(a) Production of goods (b) Trading in goods
(c) Professional service (d) Social service

Answer: (d)

2. Identify the activity which is not an auxiliary to trade:
(a) Banking (b) Warehousing
(c) Insurance (d) Mining

Answer: (d)

3. Identify the type of organization which ensures separation of ownership and management:
(a) Sole proprietorship (b) Partnership
(c) Company (d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following is not governed by a specific act ?
(a) Sole proprietorship (b) Partnership
(c) Company (d) Cooperative Society

Answer: (c)

5. Profit are not shared in case of :
(a) Company (b) Cooperative Society
(c) Sole Proprietorship (d) Partnership

Answer: (c)

6. The head of the joint Hindu Family business is known as:
(a) Proprietor (b) Manager
(c) Karta (d) Executive Director

Answer: (a)

7. Which of the following is not a form of organizing public sector enterprises ?
(a) Department undertaking (b) Government company
(c) Statutory corporation (d) Sole proprietorship

Answer: (a)

8. Which of the following is not a feature of a global enterprises ?
(a) Its operation ate spread out in several countries
(b) Its attempts to maximize profits world over.
(c) It is of huge size and has control over large assets.
(d) It operates on a small scale.

Answer: (c)

9. Exim bank is a:
(a) Commercial bank (b) Cooperative bank
(c) Development bank (d) Specialized bank

Answer: (d)

10. In case of life Insurance, insurable interest must exist at the of
(a) taking the policy (b) death
(c) (a) and (b) both (d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer: (a)

11. Place utility is created by :
(a) Transportation (b) Ware housing
(c) Communication (d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

12. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The sole aim of business is to earn profit by fair or foul means
(b) There is a strong case for the business to fulfill its social obligations.
(c) Ethics is good business
(d) Black marketing of goods is an unethical practice.

Answer: (d)

13. Which of the following business practice is ethical?
(a) Adulteration of goods
(b) Sale of duplicate goods under popular brand names
(c) Exploitation of workers
(d) Honesty in dealing with the consumers.

Answer: (d)

14. The objects of the company are specific by
(a) Articles of Association (b) Memorandum of Association
(c) Prospectus (d) Certificate of incorporation

Answer: (c)

15. Qualification shares are subscribed by:
(a) Directors of the company (b) Auditors of the company
(c) Bankers of the company (d) Employees of the company

Answer: (b)

16. What are the equity shareholders called ?
(a) Owners of the company (b) Partners of the company
(c) Patrons of the company (d) Managers of the company

Answer: (a)

17. The term redeemable is used for .
(a) Preference share (b) Debentures
(c) Equity shares (d) Both (a) & (b)

Answer: (b)

18. ADRs can be issued in:
(a) Europe (b) USA
(c) Canada (d) All the above

Answer: (a)

19. Measures taken by the Government to support small industries include
(a) Protective measures (b) Incentive
(c) Institutional measures (d) all the above

Answer: (b)

20. Which of the following is not a type of a itinerant retailers?
(a) Hawkers (b) Street traders
(c) Cheap jaks (d) Street stalls /shops

Answer: (c)

21. Which of the following does not come under the category of fixed shop retailers?
(a) General stores (b) Departmental stores
(c) Hawkers and peddlers (d) Chain stores

Answer: (c)

22. In foreign trade, in term c.i.f (CIF) stand for :
(a) Cost (b) Cost and Freight
(c) Cost and Insurance (d) Cost, Insurance, Freight

Answer: (b)

23. Who announces the exam policy or Foreign Trade policy ?
(a) Central Government (b) State Government
(c) Chamber of commerce (d) World Trade organization

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XII : Chemistry Exam Paper Year 2009 (ISC Board)

CBSE Class XII : Chemistry Exam Paper Year 2009 (ISC Board)

General Instruction:
(i). All working including rough work should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to the rest of the answer.
(ii). The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. (Material to be supplied: Log tables including Trigonometric functions)
(iii). A list of useful physical constants is given at the end of this paper.

PART I

Q1. (a) Correct the following statements by changing the underlined part of the sentence. (Do not change the whole sentence) : [5]

(i) For all spontaneous processes the change in entropy is zero.
(ii)
Formaldehyde undergoes Cannizzaro’s reaction since it has one alpha hydrogen atom.
(iii)
In a co-ordination complex, donation of electron pair takes place from the central metal atom to the ligands.
(iv)
An aqueous solution of sodium sulphate is acidic in nature.
(v)
The solubility product of sliver chloride in water decreases on addition of potassium chloride to the solution.

(b) Complete the following statements by selecting the correct alternative from the choices given: [5]

(i) The number of Faradays required to reduce one mol of (Cu)+2 to metallic copper is:
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four.

(ii) When oxalic acid is heated with glycerol we get:
(a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid
(c) Lactic acid (d) Tartaric acid.

(iii) The molecular weight of sodium chloride determined by measuring the osmotic pressure of its aqueous solution is:
(a) Double the theoretical value (b) Same as the theoretical value
(c) Half the theoretical value (d) Three times the theoretical value.

(iv) In ethyne molecule there are:
(a) Only three sigma bonds
(b) Only three pi bonds
(c) Three sigma bonds and two pi bonds
(d) Three pi bonds and two sigma bonds.

(v) An example of an electrophil is:
(a) NO2+ (b) NO2-
(c) NO2 (d) NO3-

(c) Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word / words from those given in the brackets : [5]
(paramagnetic, ethanol, diethyl ether, electron, proton, neutron, directly, Glucose, one, two depression, inversely, Fructose, Lewis acid, Lewis base, positive, ions, diamagnetic, negative, two, molecules, elevation, atoms)
(i) ………. and ……. are functional isomers.
(ii) AICl3 is a ……… because it is an ……………. deficient molecule.
(iii) The ……………. of the boiling point of a solvent by the addition of a solute is ……. proportional to the molality of the solution.
(iv) The crystal of diamond is made of ………….. while that of calcium chloride is made of ……… .
(v) Oxygen molecule is………… due to the presence of …………… unpaired electrons.

(d) Match the following:

(i) Co-ordination compounds

(ii) Dilute solution

(iii) Electrolysis

(iv) Toluene

(v) Radioactivity

(a) Raoult’s law

(b) Group displacement law

(c) Werner’s theory

(d) Faraday’s law

(e) Friedel Craft’s reaction.

PART II (SECTION A)

Answer any two questions:

Q2:
(a) (i)
The boiling point of pure water is 373K. Calculate the boiling point of an aqueous solution containing 18 gms of glucose (MW = 180) in 100 gms of water. Molal elevation constant of water is 0.52 K kg/mol. [5]

(ii) Equal weights of two substances X and Y are dissolved in equal volumes of water. The osmotic pressure of the solution containing Y is five times the osmotic pressure of the solution containing X. What is the molecular weight of X if that of Y is 60?

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 
Exam / Class: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XII : Commerce Exam Paper Year 2010 (ISC Board)

CBSE Class XII : Commerce Exam Paper Year 2010 (ISC Board)

Part – I (Answer any seven questions)

Q1. Answer briefly each of the questions (i) to (xv). [15 x 2]

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 
Exam / Class: 

(Paper) CBSE Class XII : Computer Science Exam Paper Year 2009 (ISC Board)

CBSE Class XII : Computer Science Exam Paper Year 2009 (ISC Board)

General Instruction:
(i). All working including rough work should be done on the same sheet as, and adjacent to the rest of the answer.
(ii). The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets []. (Material to be supplied: Log tables including Trigonometric functions)
(iii). A list of useful physical constants is given at the end of this paper.

PART I

Q1. (a) Obtain the Truth Table to verify the following expression: x.(y+z) = x.y + x.z Also name the law stated above. [2]
(b) Answer the following questions related to the gate given below:

Computer_science_fig1.

(i) What is the output of the above gate if input A = 0, B = 1?
(ii) What are the values of the inputs if output = 1? [2]

(c) Given F = A + (B+C). (D’+E)
Find F’ and show the relevant working in steps. [2]
(d) State the dual for the following expression and also draw the logic gate diagram for the dual expression obtained using NOR gate only.
P = A.B + C.D [2]
(e)
For the given truth table where A, B, C are inputs and X is the output,

A B C X
0 0 0 1
0 0 1 0
0 1 0 0
0 1 1 1
1 0 0 1
1 0 1 0
1 1 0 1
1 1 1 0

Write:

(i) Canonical sum-of-product expression (SOP)
(ii) Canonical Product-of-Sum expression (POS)

Q2. (a) State a difference between Linear and Non-Linear Data Structure. Give one example of each. [2]
(b) Convert the following infix expression to its postfix form : [2]
( (P*Q) / (R / S+T)) + U

(c) Simplify the following expression by using the Boolean laws. Show the working in steps and also mention the laws used: [2]
x’.y’.z’ + x’.y’.z + x’y.z + x’.y.z’ + x.y’.z + x.y’z

(d) Each element of an array A[20][10] requires two bytes of storage. If the address of A[6][8] is 4000, find the Base Address at A[0][0] when the array is stored as Row Major wise. [2]
(e) Define Inheritance. How is it useful in programming?

Q3. (a) The following function trial and perform are a part of some class. Answer the following parts given below. Show the dry run/working. int trial (int n)
{if (n==1) return 2; else if (n==2) return 3; else return trial (n-2) + trial (n-1);}

//for C++//

void perform (int p)

{ int x;

for(int i=1 ; i<=p; i++) OR

x=trail (i);

cout<<x<<" ";

OR //for Java//

void perform (int p)

{ int x;

for (int i=1 ; i<p; i++)

{

x=trail (i);

System.out.print(x + “”)

(i) What will the function trial  return when the value of n is 4? [2]
(ii) What will be the output of the function perform  when the value of p is 5? [1]
(iii) In one line state what the function trial  is doing, apart from recursion? [1]

(b) Answer the following from the diagram of a Binary Tree given below:

Computer_science_fig2

i) Root of the tree [1]
ii) External nodes of the tree. [1]
iii) List the nodes in the tree using Inorder Traversal. [1]
iv) Left subtree. [1]
v) Height of the tree. [1]

PART II ( Section A )

Q4. (a) F(P,Q,R,S) = P’Q’RS’ + P’QRS’ + PQ’R’S + PQ’RS’ + PQ’RS + PQR’S + PQRS’ + PQRS [5]
Use Karnaugh’s Map to reduce the given function F using the SOP form. Draw a logic gate diagram for the reduced SOP form. You may use gate with more than two inputs. Assume that the variables and their complements are available as inputs.

(b) F(A,B,C,D) = n(0,1,2,3,5,7,9,13) [5]
Use Karnaugh’s Map to reduce the given function F using the POS form. Draw a logic gate diagram for the reduced POS form. You may use gate with more than two inputs. Assume that the variables and their complements are available as inputs.

Q5. A provisional store announces a special discount on all its product as a festival offer only to those who satisfy any one of the following conditions :
• If he/she is an employee of the store and has a service of more than 10 years.
• If he/she is a regular customer of the store whose age is less than 65 years and is not an employee of the store.
• If he/she is a senior citizen but not a regular customer of the store.

The inputs are :
E : Employee of the store
R : Regular customer of the store
S : Service of the employee is more than 10 years
C : Senior citizen of 65 years or above

Output: X-Denotes eligible for discount [1 indicates YES and 0 indicates NO in all cases]
(a)
Draw the truth table for the inputs and outputs given above and write the SOP expression for X(E,R,S,C). [5]
(b)
Reduce X(E,R,S,C) using Karnaugh’s Map [5]
Draw te logic gate diagram for the reduced SOP expression for X(E,R,S,C) using AND & OR gates. You may use gates with two or more inputs. Assume that the variable and their complements are available as inputs.

Q 6. (a) Draw a truth table representing a 2 input XNOR gate and derive its SOP expression along with its logic gate diagram. [3]
(b)
Simplify the following expression and convert it to its canonical POS form: [3]
(x.y+z) (y+z’.x)
(c)
From the Logic Circuit diagram given below, name the parts (1), (2), (3) and finally derive the Boolean expression and simplify it: [4]

Computer_science_fig4

Q7. (a) Prove that the complement of A.(A+B).(B+CD)’ is a universal gate. [2]
(b)
Minimise the following expression. At each start step clearly the law used. [3]
(c) Draw the truth table and logic circuit diagram for a decimal to binary encoder. [5]

Q8. (a) State a difference between multiplexers and decoders. Also state a use of each. [2]
(b) Verify the following Boolean expression with the help of a truth table. [3]

Computer_science_fig5

(c) Write the SOP expression, truth table and the logic circuit of full adder. [5]

SECTION-B

Each program should be written in such a way that it clearly depicts the logic of the problem. This can be achieved by using mnemonic names and comments in the program. (Flowcharts and Algorithms are not required) The program must be written in C++/Java.

Q 9. A magic number is a number in which the eventual sum of digits of the number is equal to 1.
For example, 172= 1+7+2=10
10 = 1+0= 1
then 172 is a magic number.
Design a class Magic to check if a given number is a magic number. Some of the members of the class are given below:

Class name : Magic
Data members/instance variables
n : stores the number
Member functions :
Magic  : constructor to assign 0 to n
void getnum (int nn) : to assign the parameter value to the number, n =nn
int Sum-of’ digits (int) : returns the sum of the digits of a number
void ismagic : checks if the given number is a magic number by calling the function Sum of digits (int) and displays appropriate message

Specify the class Magic giving the details of the constructor, void getnum(int), int Sum-of digits(int) and void ismagic. You need not write the main function. [10]

Q 10. A Transpose of an array is obtained by interchanging the elements of the rows and columns. [10]

A class Transarray contains a two dimensional integer array of order [m x n]. The maximum value possible for both `m’ and `n’ is 20. Design a class Transarray to find the transpose of a given matrix. The details of the members of the class are given below :

Class name : Transarray
Data members/instance variables :
arr[] : stores the matrix elements
m : integer to store the number of rows
n : integer to store the number of columns
Member functions :
Transarray : default constructor
Transarray(int mm, int nn) : to initialize the size of the matrix, m=mm, n=nn
void fillarray : to enter the elements of the matrix
void transpose(Transarray A) : to find the transpose of a given matrix
void disparrary : displays the array in a matrix form

Specify the class Transarray giving the details of the constructors, void fillarray, void transpose(Transarray) and void disparray. You need not write the main function.

Q 11. A library issues books on rental basis at a 2% charge on the cast price of the book per day . As per the rules of the library, a book can be retained for 7 days without any fine . If the book is returned after 7 says, a fine will also be charged for the excess days as per the chart given below:

GENERAL: 
Subjects: 
Exam / Class: 

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